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PM: Performance measurement

31 free practice questions on performance measurement, Section E of the ACCA Performance Management (PM) question bank. Topics include Transfer pricing, Balanced scorecard, Financial performance indicators, Non-financial performance indicators, Fitzgerald and Moon building blocks, ROI vs Residual Income. Each question carries its syllabus reference and a worked explanation. Practise them in the quiz with instant feedback, or read every question with its answer further down this page.

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All 31 performance measurement questions

The same questions the quiz above draws on, in syllabus order, each with its answer and worked explanation. 26 are multiple choice and 5 are numerical, where you work the answer out before choosing it.

Question 1 · Syllabus ref E1a · Financial performance indicators

Baringoe Co data: Operating profit £6m; Interest cover ratio 12 times; Capital gearing ratio (debt:equity) 45%; Interest rate on long-term debt 4%. What is the carrying value of equity? (Replicating the SD25 examiner example.)

  1. £6.9m
  2. £4.8m
  3. £27.8m
  4. £19.4m
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. This replicates the examiner's SD25 Example 1, which works backwards through three linked ratios. Step 1: interest payable = operating profit ÷ interest cover = £6m ÷ 12 = £0.5m. Step 2: long-term debt = interest payable ÷ interest rate = £0.5m ÷ 0.04 = £12.5m. Step 3: capital gearing (debt ÷ equity) = 0.45, so equity = debt ÷ 0.45 = £12.5m ÷ 0.45 = £27.8m. The examiner noted candidates struggle with multi-step ratio questions that must be unwound in this order. The distractors arise from common slips: stopping at the debt figure, applying the interest rate or cover the wrong way round, or treating the 45% as debt's share of total capital (debt + equity) and so deriving total capital rather than equity alone.

Question 2 · Syllabus ref E1b · Non-financial performance indicators

A hospital measures its performance using both financial and non-financial indicators. Which of the following is a non-financial performance indicator most relevant to a hospital's core objectives?

  1. Cost per bed per night
  2. Variance between actual and budgeted staffing expenditure
  3. Return on capital employed for the hospital estate
  4. Average patient waiting time for treatment
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Non-financial performance indicators (NFPIs) measure aspects of performance not directly expressed in monetary terms. For a hospital, patient waiting time directly measures the quality and accessibility of care — central to a hospital's mission. Cost per bed (A) and staffing variances (B) are financial measures. ROCE (C) is a financial ratio. The examiner emphasises that for public sector and NFP organisations, NFPIs are often more meaningful measures of success than financial ones — a hospital's success is better measured by clinical outcomes and patient experience than by financial returns.

Question 3 · Syllabus ref E1f · Balanced scorecard

A manufacturing company's balanced scorecard includes the following measures. Which perspective does 'percentage of orders delivered on time' belong to?

  1. Customer perspective — measures the quality of service experienced by customers
  2. Internal business process perspective — measures operational efficiency
  3. Learning and innovation perspective — measures capability development
  4. Financial perspective — measures the revenue impact of delivery performance
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. The balanced scorecard's four perspectives: Financial (revenue, profit, ROI, ROCE), Customer (satisfaction, retention, on-time delivery, complaint rates), Internal Business Process (process efficiency, quality rates, cycle times), Learning and Innovation (employee training, staff turnover, new product development). On-time delivery is a customer-facing measure — it directly impacts customer satisfaction and loyalty. It could also be argued as an internal process measure, but the examiner's approach is to classify delivery performance as a customer measure because it reflects the customer's experience of the company's service. Option B is reasonable but less precise than A.

Question 4 · Syllabus ref E1f · Balanced scorecard — cause and effect

The balanced scorecard is built on a cause-and-effect logic linking the four perspectives. Which of the following correctly describes this chain of causation?

  1. Financial results drive customer outcomes, which drive internal process efficiency, which drives learning
  2. Learning and innovation drives internal process improvement, which improves customer outcomes, which drives financial results
  3. Customer satisfaction drives financial results, which fund learning, which improves processes
  4. All four perspectives operate independently with no assumed causal linkages between them
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. The BSC's strategy map logic: Investment in people and systems (Learning and Innovation) enables better processes (Internal Business Process), which delivers better customer value (Customer), which generates superior financial results (Financial). This bottom-up causation is the key insight — financial results are the outcome of excellent processes and satisfied customers, which are in turn enabled by capable, motivated people. The examiner (SD25, Klen Co) specifically tested the ability to link perspectives in analysis rather than discussing each in isolation. Options A and C reverse the causal direction. Option D is the opposite of the BSC philosophy.

Question 5 · Syllabus ref E1f · Fitzgerald and Moon building blocks

Fitzgerald and Moon's Building Block model proposes three sets of building blocks for performance management in service organisations. Which of the following correctly identifies all three?

  1. Financial, Customer, Process, and Learning perspectives
  2. Economy, Efficiency, and Effectiveness
  3. Dimensions (what to measure), Standards (the targets set), and Rewards (what motivates achievement of standards)
  4. Inputs, Processes, and Outputs
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. The Building Block model (Fitzgerald and Moon, 1992) was developed specifically for service organisations. The three building blocks are: Dimensions — the six areas of performance to measure (financial performance, competitiveness, quality of service, flexibility, resource utilisation, and innovation); Standards — the targets set for each dimension (ownership, achievability, equity); Rewards — the incentives aligned to achieving the standards (clarity, motivation, controllability). Option A describes the balanced scorecard. Option B describes the 3Es (value for money framework for public sector). Option D is a generic systems model.

Question 6 · Syllabus ref E2e · ROI vs Residual Income

Division X: capital employed £500,000, net profit £90,000. Division Y: capital employed £200,000, net profit £44,000. Company's required rate of return: 15%. A new project for Division X costs £100,000 and earns £18,000. (a) Calculate ROI for each division. (b) Would the Division X manager accept the project under ROI? (c) Is the project worthwhile from a company perspective?

  1. X ROI 18%, Y ROI 22%; X manager accepts because 18% > 15%; no conflict
  2. X ROI 15%, Y ROI 22%; X manager is indifferent; company accepts project
  3. X ROI 18%, Y ROI 22%; X manager accepts because project ROI 18% matches divisional ROI
  4. X ROI 18%, Y ROI 22%; X manager rejects (dilutes X's 18% ROI); project earns 18% > 15% hurdle so company wants it accepted — conflict
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Current ROI: X = £90,000÷£500,000 = 18%; Y = £44,000÷£200,000 = 22%. Project ROI = £18,000÷£100,000 = 18%. Division X's manager, assessed on ROI, compares project ROI (18%) to current divisional ROI (18%) — the project would not change X's ROI, so the manager may be indifferent. But if the project slightly dilutes or maintains ROI, the manager assessed purely on ROI has no incentive to accept. From the company's perspective: 18% > 15% hurdle rate — the project creates value and should be accepted. This is the classic ROI vs RI conflict: RI (£18,000 − 15%×£100,000 = £18,000−£15,000 = £3,000 positive) gives the correct signal. Option D best captures this dynamic.

Question 7 · Syllabus ref E2e · Residual income — calculation

A division has capital employed of £800,000 and earns net profit of £128,000. The company's cost of capital is 14%. Calculate the residual income and explain what it indicates.

  1. RI = £16,000; the division generates value above the cost of capital
  2. RI = £128,000; residual income equals net profit when cost of capital is ignored
  3. RI = −£16,000; the division destroys value as profit is insufficient to cover the capital charge
  4. RI = £112,000; the capital charge is deducted from profit to give residual income
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Residual Income = Net profit − (Capital employed × Cost of capital) = £128,000 − (£800,000 × 14%) = £128,000 − £112,000 = £16,000. Positive RI means the division earns more than the cost of financing its capital — it creates economic value. A divisional manager assessed on RI has the correct incentive to accept any project with positive RI (i.e. earning above the cost of capital), aligning divisional decisions with overall company value creation. Option B ignores the capital charge entirely. Option C (−£16,000) reverses the sign: profit exceeds the capital charge, so RI is positive. Option D gives the capital charge, not RI.

Question 8 · Syllabus ref E2b · Transfer pricing — general principles

Division A sells a component to Division B. Division A has spare capacity. Variable cost of production is £20 per unit. An external market price for the component is £35. What is the minimum transfer price Division A should accept?

  1. £35 — the external market price, as Division A should not sell below market
  2. £20 — variable cost, as there is no opportunity cost when spare capacity exists
  3. £27.50 — the midpoint between variable cost and market price
  4. £0 — internal transfers should be at no cost to maximise group efficiency
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. The minimum transfer price formula: Minimum TP = Variable cost + Opportunity cost. With spare capacity, opportunity cost = zero (Division A is not sacrificing external sales). Therefore minimum TP = £20 + £0 = £20 per unit. Below £20, Division A makes a loss on each transfer. At any price above £20, Division A contributes positively. Division B would prefer any price below £35 (the external market price). Any transfer price in the range £20–£35 creates an incentive for both divisions to trade internally, benefiting the group. Option A (market price) is the maximum, not minimum. Option C has no theoretical basis. Option D would deprive Division A of contribution.

Question 9 · Syllabus ref E2b · Transfer pricing — at full capacity

Division A operates at full capacity, selling all output externally at £50 per unit. Variable cost is £28. Division B wants to buy 1,000 units from Division A. What is the minimum transfer price Division A should accept, and why?

  1. £28 — variable cost, because there is no additional cost to Division A
  2. £39 — the average of variable cost and market price
  3. £50 — the market price, because Division A must sacrifice an external sale worth £50 for each internal transfer
  4. £22 — the contribution forgone per unit
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. When Division A operates at full capacity, every unit transferred internally requires sacrificing an external sale. Opportunity cost = Contribution forgone = £50 − £28 = £22 per unit. Minimum TP = Variable cost + Opportunity cost = £28 + £22 = £50 — the external market price. This makes sense: Division A is indifferent between selling externally at £50 or internally at £50. Below £50, Division A loses contribution — it would prefer to sell externally. This contrasts with the spare capacity case where minimum TP = variable cost. Option A ignores the opportunity cost. Option B has no basis. Option D incorrectly treats contribution as the transfer price rather than the opportunity cost component.

Question 10 · Syllabus ref E1d · Short-termism

A manager whose annual bonus is based entirely on this year's reported profit decides to cut the training and development budget and defer essential maintenance. What problem does this illustrate?

  1. Goal congruence — the manager's objectives are fully aligned with the organisation's long-term interests
  2. Benchmarking — the manager is comparing performance to industry norms
  3. Budgetary slack — the manager is reducing costs to create a buffer for future periods
  4. Short-termism — the manager sacrifices long-term organisational capability and sustainability for short-term financial gain
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Short-termism is the prioritisation of short-term financial results at the expense of long-term value creation. Cutting training (reduces future capability), deferring maintenance (increases future costs and risks), and reducing R&D (reduces future competitive position) are all classic short-termist behaviours. They boost this year's profit but damage the organisation's future. The root cause is poorly designed incentive systems that reward only short-term financial metrics. This is not goal congruence (A) — the manager's interests diverge from the organisation's long-term interests. Options B and C are unrelated.

Question 11 · Syllabus ref E3d · Value for money — 3Es

A local council measures Value for Money (VFM) using the three Es framework. The council's housing department processes grant applications at a cost of £95 per application, compared to a benchmark of £70 in similar councils. The applications are processed accurately with no errors. Which E is most clearly not being achieved?

  1. Economy — the council is spending more per application than comparable authorities, suggesting inputs are not being acquired at minimum cost
  2. Efficiency — the processing cost indicates poor use of staff time per application
  3. Effectiveness — the applications are not achieving their intended purpose
  4. All three Es are equally affected when cost per application is above benchmark
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. The three Es: Economy (obtaining inputs at minimum cost), Efficiency (maximising outputs per unit of input), Effectiveness (achieving objectives). A cost of £95 vs benchmark £70 suggests the council is not acquiring or deploying its resources economically — it is spending more than necessary to produce the same output (processed application). Efficiency (B) relates to the relationship between inputs used and outputs produced — this could also be a concern, but without data on staffing levels and throughput, economy is the clearest issue. Effectiveness (C) is not the issue — applications are processed accurately. Option D incorrectly collapses the distinction.

Question 12 · Syllabus ref E1g · Difficulties of setting qualitative targets

A hospital sets a target that 'patients should receive compassionate care.' Which of the following best explains why this target is difficult to use in a performance management system?

  1. It is too easy to achieve and therefore does not stretch performance
  2. It is qualitative and subjective — 'compassion' cannot be directly measured or objectively verified, making assessment arbitrary and potentially unfair
  3. It should only be measured by financial indicators such as patient satisfaction scores converted to ratings
  4. Qualitative targets are not permitted in public sector performance frameworks
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Qualitative performance targets create specific problems: they are inherently subjective (different assessors may interpret 'compassionate' differently), they are difficult to measure with precision, they can be manipulated through selective evidence, and they may be perceived as unfair if assessors are inconsistent. The solution is often to identify proxy measurable indicators (e.g. complaint rates, patient satisfaction scores) that correlate with the qualitative objective — though these are imperfect. Option A is an unsupported assertion. Option C narrows qualitative assessment to financial proxies incorrectly. Option D is factually wrong — qualitative targets are common in public sector frameworks.

Question 13 · Syllabus ref E3a · NFP objectives — multiple objectives

A charity has the following objectives: maximise the number of beneficiaries served; maintain financial sustainability; ensure quality of service; operate ethically; and minimise environmental impact. Which of the following best describes the performance management challenge this creates?

  1. The charity should prioritise financial sustainability above all other objectives to ensure long-term survival
  2. Multiple objectives are irrelevant in an NFP context as profit is not a measure of success
  3. Multiple objectives may conflict — maximising beneficiaries served may require reducing service quality or financial sustainability, requiring trade-off decisions
  4. The five objectives are naturally complementary and create no performance management difficulty
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Multiple objectives create genuine performance management complexity because they may conflict: serving more beneficiaries may stretch resources and reduce service quality; prioritising quality may limit numbers served; environmental investment may reduce funds available for services. Management must navigate these trade-offs, and the performance measurement system must capture progress on all dimensions. No single objective (A) is inherently paramount — financial sustainability is necessary but not the charitable mission. Multiple objectives are highly relevant to NFP performance management (B). Option D is naively optimistic — conflicts between objectives are a well-recognised management challenge.

Question 14 · Syllabus ref E2c · Transfer pricing — distortion of performance

Division A sells components to Division B at a transfer price of £45. Variable cost = £25, external market price = £55. Division B processes them and sells externally at £80, incurring additional variable costs of £15. From the group's perspective, what is the contribution per unit? And at a transfer price of £45, is Division B likely to accept internal transfers?

  1. Group contribution = £40; Division B contribution = £45, so B prefers external purchase
  2. Group contribution = £15; Division B refuses all internal transfers
  3. Group contribution = £40; transfer price irrelevant to Division B's decision
  4. Group contribution = £40; Division B contribution = £20, so B would accept the transfer
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Group perspective (ignores internal transfer price): Revenue £80 − Total variable cost (£25 + £15) = £80 − £40 = £40 contribution per unit. Division B perspective: Revenue £80 − Transfer price £45 − Own VC £15 = £80 − £60 = £20 contribution per unit. Since Division B earns £20 contribution per unit from the internal transfer, it would accept. If Division B could buy externally at £55: Revenue £80 − External price £55 − Own VC £15 = £10 contribution — less favourable. So at TP=£45, Division B prefers internal transfer (£20 > £10). Division A: contribution = £45 − £25 = £20 per unit (also acceptable). Both divisions benefit from the internal trade. Option D is correct.

Question 15 · Syllabus ref E1c · Analysing and improving performance

A company's gross profit margin has fallen from 38% to 31% over two years while revenue has increased by 12%. Which of the following is the most likely explanation that management should investigate first?

  1. Cost of sales has risen faster than revenue — either input prices have increased or the product mix has shifted toward lower-margin products
  2. Revenue growth has caused diseconomies of scale, automatically reducing margins
  3. The fall in margin proves management has been ineffective at controlling costs
  4. A 7% fall in margin is normal for a growing business and requires no investigation
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. A falling gross profit margin with rising revenue means cost of sales has grown proportionally faster than revenue. Primary investigations: (1) Input cost inflation — have materials, labour, or supplier prices increased? (2) Product mix shift — has the company sold more low-margin products relative to high-margin ones? (3) Pricing pressure — have selling prices been cut to drive volume growth? (4) Production inefficiency — has waste or yield deteriorated? Option B assumes automatic diseconomies of scale without evidence. Option C draws a conclusion (management ineffectiveness) before investigation. Option D dismisses a significant and sustained deterioration without basis.

Question 16 · Syllabus ref E1h · External considerations in performance management

A retailer's like-for-like sales fall by 4% compared to the prior year. Industry data shows that all major competitors experienced sales declines of 8-12% over the same period. How should management interpret this performance?

  1. Poor performance — any sales decline indicates management failure
  2. Relatively strong performance — the retailer has gained market share despite an adverse market environment, suggesting effective management
  3. Acceptable performance — the decline matches competitors exactly
  4. Irrelevant — internal performance should be assessed against internal budgets only, not external benchmarks
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. External context is essential for meaningful performance assessment — the examiner (SD25, Klen Co) specifically illustrated this: a company declining 9.1% in revenue looks poor in isolation, but outperforms a market declining 11.9% and has gained market share. Similarly, a 4% decline that beats an 8-12% industry fall represents genuine outperformance and market share gain — a sign of effective management. Judging performance solely against internal budgets (D) ignores the reality of market conditions that management cannot fully control. Option A applies an absolutist standard that ignores context. Option C is factually wrong — the retailer performed better than competitors.

Question 17 · Syllabus ref E2f · Divisional performance comparison

A company has two divisions — Division Alpha (capital employed £2m, profit £320,000) and Division Beta (capital employed £500,000, profit £90,000). Required rate of return: 14%. Which statement about comparing divisional performance is most accurate?

  1. Alpha is the better division because it generates more absolute profit
  2. Beta is clearly superior because its ROI is higher in all circumstances
  3. ROI: Alpha 16%, Beta 18% — Beta appears more efficient. RI: Alpha £40,000, Beta £20,000 — Alpha creates more absolute value. Neither method alone tells the full story
  4. ROI and RI always give the same ranking so either method can be used interchangeably
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. ROI: Alpha=£320k÷£2m=16%; Beta=£90k÷£500k=18%. RI: Alpha=£320k−(£2m×14%)=£320k−£280k=£40k; Beta=£90k−(£500k×14%)=£90k−£70k=£20k. By ROI, Beta is more efficient per £ of capital. By RI, Alpha creates more absolute economic value. The choice of metric matters: a large division can have lower ROI but higher RI; a small but efficient division can have high ROI but limited RI. Neither alone is sufficient — management should consider both alongside non-financial measures. Option A uses absolute profit (misleading without considering capital employed). Option B applies ROI too narrowly. Option D is demonstrably wrong — they give different rankings here.

Question 18 · Syllabus ref E3c · Performance measurement in NFP organisations

Which of the following performance measures would be most appropriate for a university seeking to demonstrate effectiveness?

  1. Cost per student enrolled
  2. Surplus of income over expenditure for the year
  3. Number of administrative staff per academic staff member
  4. Graduate employment rate six months after completion
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Effectiveness measures whether an organisation achieves its objectives. A university's core mission includes preparing graduates for productive careers — graduate employment rate directly measures this outcome. Cost per student (A) is an economy/efficiency measure (inputs and processes), not effectiveness. Financial surplus (B) is a financial measure that ensures sustainability but does not measure educational effectiveness. Staff ratios (C) measure resource allocation (efficiency), not whether the organisation achieves its educational mission. The examiner consistently tests the distinction between efficiency (doing things right) and effectiveness (doing the right things) in NFP contexts.

Question 19 · Syllabus ref E1e · Sustainability and long-term performance

A company reports strong financial performance but an independent review reveals it has been systematically underinvesting in maintenance, staff development, and environmental compliance. Which of the following best describes the risk this creates?

  1. The company faces a sustainability risk — short-term financial results are being achieved at the expense of long-term operational and reputational resilience
  2. The company is efficiently managing its costs and should continue this approach
  3. Maintenance and training are discretionary costs that do not affect long-term performance
  4. The financial results prove the strategy is correct and the review's concerns are misplaced
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Sustainable performance requires organisations to consider the long-term consequences of current decisions. Deferred maintenance creates future equipment failures and capital expenditure spikes. Underinvestment in staff development reduces future capability and productivity. Environmental non-compliance creates regulatory and reputational risk. Together, these create a 'sustainability gap' — current financial results look good but long-term viability is being undermined. The examiner emphasises that performance management must consider sustainability alongside financial metrics. Options B, C, and D all fail to recognise the long-term consequences of the current approach.

Question 20 · Syllabus ref E2d · Transfer pricing — international issues

A multinational company sets transfer prices between its divisions in different countries. Division H (high-tax country, 30% tax) supplies components to Division L (low-tax country, 15% tax). If the company sets transfer prices below market rate, what is the likely tax consequence?

  1. The group pays more tax overall because transfer pricing always increases total tax liability
  2. Division H reports lower profit (lower transfer price reduces its revenue) and less tax is paid in the high-tax country; Division L reports higher profit and pays more tax at the lower rate — the group reduces its overall tax bill
  3. Transfer pricing has no effect on total group tax as profits are the same across the group
  4. Tax authorities in all jurisdictions accept any transfer price set by the multinational
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Setting a below-market transfer price means Division H (supplier in high-tax country) receives less revenue → lower profit → less tax at 30%. Division L (buyer in low-tax country) pays less for inputs → higher profit → more tax at 15%. Net effect: profit shifts from the 30% country to the 15% country, reducing the group's total tax liability. This is why tax authorities (OECD, HMRC, etc.) require transfer prices to follow the 'arm's length principle' — the price that unrelated parties would agree. Artificial transfer pricing for tax avoidance is illegal in most jurisdictions. Options A and C misunderstand the mechanism. Option D is incorrect — tax authorities scrutinise transfer pricing arrangements.

Question 21 · Syllabus ref E1b · NFPIs — balanced measurement

A logistics company measures success using only financial metrics (profit, ROCE, cost per delivery). Which of the following non-financial indicators would provide the most valuable additional insight into performance?

  1. On-time delivery rate and customer complaint rate
  2. The CEO's salary as a percentage of average worker pay
  3. Number of vehicles owned by the company
  4. The age of the company's registered patents
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. For a logistics company, on-time delivery is the core service promise — measuring it directly reveals how well the company serves customers. Customer complaint rate reveals service failures and satisfaction trends. Together, these NFPIs complement financial metrics by showing whether the company is performing operationally and retaining customer loyalty — the drivers of long-term financial success. CEO pay ratio (B) is a governance/social metric, not an operational performance indicator. Vehicle numbers (C) measure assets, not performance. Patent age (D) is relevant to innovation-intensive industries but not logistic operations.

Question 22 · Syllabus ref E2b · Transfer pricing — negotiated approach

Two divisions are negotiating a transfer price. Division S (supplying) has variable cost £30, external market price £55. Division R (receiving) would pay £55 externally but wishes to negotiate a lower price. Spare capacity exists in Division S. What is the range of acceptable transfer prices and who benefits from negotiation?

  1. The only acceptable price is £30 (variable cost) as this minimises cost to the group
  2. The only acceptable price is £55 as Division S should not transfer below external market price
  3. No range exists — there is no mutually beneficial transfer price when spare capacity exists
  4. Range £30–£55; any price in this range benefits both divisions compared to their alternative — S earns above variable cost, R pays below external market price
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. With spare capacity, Division S's minimum is variable cost (£30) — any price above this generates contribution for S. Division R's maximum is the external price (£55) — any price below saves R money. The negotiating range is £30 to £55. Within this range, both divisions benefit compared to their alternatives: S earns above zero contribution, R saves compared to external purchase. The actual price negotiated within this range depends on bargaining power. Option A ignores S's interest. Option B ignores the benefit to R of trading below market price. Option C incorrectly states no range exists.

Question 23 · Syllabus ref E1f · Balanced scorecard — implementation challenges

A company has decided to implement a balanced scorecard. Which of the following represents a common difficulty in implementation?

  1. The balanced scorecard cannot be used in manufacturing companies
  2. All four perspectives must have equal numbers of measures, making the design inflexible
  3. The balanced scorecard automatically aligns all employees' incentives with organisational objectives
  4. Identifying too many measures across the four perspectives, making the scorecard complex and difficult to manage
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. A key implementation challenge is measure proliferation — organisations often try to include every possible metric, resulting in a scorecard with dozens of measures across four perspectives. This defeats the purpose: managers cannot focus on what matters most. The solution is disciplined selection of a small number of truly strategic KPIs per perspective. The BSC can be used in any industry including manufacturing (A). There is no requirement for equal numbers of measures across perspectives (B) — balance refers to the multi-dimensional view of performance, not numerical equality. The BSC does not automatically align incentives (C) — it requires deliberate linkage of rewards to scorecard measures.

Question 24 · Syllabus ref E2e · ROI — goal congruence issue

Division M has a current ROI of 22%. It is considering a new investment with an expected ROI of 18%. The company's required rate of return is 15%. Would the Division M manager accept the investment under ROI assessment, and is this the correct decision for the company?

  1. Manager accepts (18% > 15% hurdle); correct decision for the company
  2. Manager rejects; company should also reject as 18% is below the division's current ROI
  3. Manager rejects (18% dilutes M's 22% ROI); company should accept (18% > 15% hurdle) — ROI creates goal incongruence
  4. Manager accepts because any positive ROI represents value creation
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. This is the classic ROI vs company interest conflict. Division M's manager, assessed on ROI, compares the new investment's ROI (18%) to the current divisional ROI (22%). Accepting the investment would dilute the divisional ROI — rational managers assessed on ROI will reject value-creating investments that reduce their metric. From the company's perspective: 18% ROI > 15% required return = positive NPV investment that creates value and should be accepted. ROI creates goal incongruence here: the manager's incentive (protect high ROI) conflicts with the company's interest (accept value-creating investments). RI solves this: RI = £18% × investment − 15% × investment = positive → accept.

Question 25 · Syllabus ref E1a · Performance analysis — financial ratios

A company reports: Revenue £4.5m; Operating profit £630,000; Capital employed £3.5m; Non-current liabilities £1.2m; Equity £2.3m. Calculate ROCE and the gearing ratio (debt:equity).

  1. ROCE 14%; Gearing 48%
  2. ROCE 18%; Gearing 52%
  3. ROCE 18%; Gearing 66%
  4. ROCE 21%; Gearing 52%
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. ROCE = Operating profit ÷ Capital employed = £630,000 ÷ £3,500,000 = 18%. Gearing (debt:equity) = Non-current liabilities ÷ Equity = £1,200,000 ÷ £2,300,000 = 52.2% ≈ 52%, which is option B. (Check: capital employed = equity £2.3m + non-current liabilities £1.2m = £3.5m.) Option A uses the wrong figures for both ratios. Option C keeps the correct 18% ROCE but computes gearing on the wrong base. Option D overstates ROCE by dividing operating profit by equity rather than by capital employed.

Question 26 · Syllabus ref E3b · NFP — non-quantifiable objectives

A mental health charity has an objective to 'improve the wellbeing of service users.' Which of the following best explains the challenge this creates for performance measurement?

  1. Wellbeing is multi-dimensional and subjective — it cannot be directly measured, requiring proxy indicators that may not capture the full picture
  2. The objective is too ambitious and should be replaced with a purely financial target
  3. Performance measurement is irrelevant for charities as they are not profit-seeking
  4. The charity should simply count the number of service users as the sole performance measure
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Non-quantifiable objectives present fundamental measurement challenges: 'wellbeing' cannot be directly observed or objectively measured. Proxy indicators might include patient-reported outcome measures (PROMs), relapse rates, employment status, or quality of life scores — but each proxy captures only one dimension and may be influenced by factors outside the charity's control. The solution is to use multiple proxy indicators that together provide a reasonable picture. Replacing with financial targets (B) abandons the mission. Performance measurement is essential for NFPs (C) — accountability to funders and beneficiaries requires it. A single count measure (D) tells nothing about quality or outcomes.

Question 27 · Syllabus ref E1f · Balanced scorecard — analysis not description

A company's balanced scorecard shows: customer satisfaction score 82% (target 85%); on-time delivery 91% (target 90%); employee training hours 28/year (target 30); ROCE 16% (target 14%). The economy is in recession. Which of the following is the strongest balanced scorecard analysis statement?

  1. Customer satisfaction is 82% which is below the 85% target
  2. All non-financial measures are close to target and ROCE exceeds its target
  3. The company should improve delivery performance to increase customer satisfaction
  4. Customer satisfaction is below target despite strong delivery performance, suggesting that delivery is not the primary driver of satisfaction in the current recession — price or value perceptions may be the cause, warranting further investigation
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. The examiner (SD25, Klen Co) specifically illustrated the difference between weak and strong BSC analysis: weak answers merely restate numbers (Option A); strong answers identify links, consider context, and draw insights. Option D recognises that on-time delivery is above target yet customer satisfaction is below — this apparent contradiction requires explanation. In a recession, customers may value price/value more than delivery speed. This is genuine analysis that links perspectives and considers external context. Option B simply lists measures without insight. Option C assumes a causal link (delivery drives satisfaction) that the data contradicts — delivery is already above target but satisfaction is not.

Question 28 · Syllabus ref E1h · Market conditions and performance

A division's revenue fell 8% year-on-year. Industry analysis shows the total market contracted by 14%. Which of the following conclusions is most appropriate?

  1. The division has failed — any revenue decline represents management failure
  2. Market share is irrelevant — only absolute revenue matters for performance assessment
  3. The division's performance is acceptable only if revenue meets the internal budget
  4. The division has outperformed the market, increasing its market share despite difficult conditions — this represents effective management relative to external circumstances
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. The examiner (SD25, Klen Co) demonstrated this exact reasoning: a division declining 8% in a market declining 14% has gained market share. Assessing performance against external benchmarks (market conditions, competitor performance) is essential for fair evaluation. A manager cannot control industry-wide recession or demand collapse — but they can influence their share within that market. Gaining share during a downturn is genuine evidence of competitive strength. Option A applies an absolutist standard ignoring external context. Option B dismisses a highly relevant competitive metric. Option C limits assessment to internal budgets, which may themselves have been set before market conditions changed.

Question 29 · Syllabus ref E2b · Transfer pricing — market-based approach

When an intermediate external market exists for the transferred product, which transfer price is generally considered most appropriate for divisional performance assessment?

  1. Variable cost — it minimises friction between divisions and reduces the transfer price burden on the receiving division
  2. Full cost — it ensures all costs are recovered by the supplying division
  3. Market price — it reflects what each division could achieve independently, providing a fair basis for assessing divisional performance
  4. Negotiated price — it gives divisions commercial autonomy regardless of market conditions
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. When an external market exists for the transferred product, the market price is generally the most appropriate transfer price because: (1) it reflects the arm's length price at which each division could trade independently, (2) it provides the best basis for assessing divisional performance (each division can evaluate whether trading internally is preferable to the market), and (3) it aligns with OECD arm's length principles for international tax purposes. Variable cost (A) eliminates profit for the supplying division. Full cost (B) may not reflect market reality. Negotiated price (D) is appropriate when no external market exists, but when a market price is available it should be used as the reference point.

Question 30 · Syllabus ref E1f · Balanced scorecard — financial perspective

Which of the following measures belongs to the financial perspective of the balanced scorecard?

  1. Customer retention rate
  2. Employee satisfaction score
  3. Return on capital employed
  4. Percentage of processes with ISO certification
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Financial perspective measures include: ROCE, profit margins, revenue growth, EVA, cost reduction percentages, and other monetary performance indicators. Customer retention rate (A) belongs to the customer perspective. Employee satisfaction (B) belongs to the learning and innovation perspective. ISO certification (D) relates to process quality standards — internal business process perspective. Candidates occasionally confuse customer financial measures (e.g. customer lifetime value) with the financial perspective — the test is whether the measure is expressed in monetary/financial terms or ratio form reflecting financial outcomes.

Question 31 · Syllabus ref E3d · VFM — economy efficiency effectiveness

A public sector refuse collection service processes 50,000 tonnes of waste per year at a total cost of £4m. It achieves its recycling targets (45% recycled) and receives above-average satisfaction scores from residents. A neighbouring council processes the same volume at £3.2m with 40% recycling and average satisfaction. Assess Baringoe Council's performance against the three Es.

  1. Economy: worse; Efficiency: worse; Effectiveness: better — net verdict is poor performance
  2. Economy: worse (higher cost per tonne); Efficiency: assessment requires knowing inputs per tonne; Effectiveness: better (higher recycling rate and satisfaction) — the higher cost may be justified by superior outcomes
  3. Economy: worse; no assessment of efficiency or effectiveness is possible without more data
  4. All three Es are worse because the cost per tonne is higher
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Economy: Baringoe cost per tonne = £4m÷50,000=£80; neighbour = £3.2m÷50,000=£64. Baringoe is less economical (higher input cost). Efficiency: measures outputs per unit of input — would require knowing staff numbers, vehicle usage etc. — insufficient data here. Effectiveness: Baringoe achieves higher recycling (45% vs 40%) and better resident satisfaction — superior outcomes. The VFM framework requires judgement across all three Es — higher cost (worse economy) may be justified if it produces meaningfully better outcomes (better effectiveness). Option A concludes 'poor performance' without weighing the superior effectiveness. Option C is too restrictive — we can assess economy and effectiveness. Option D incorrectly reduces VFM to cost alone.

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