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ACCA · Applied Skills

TX: Income tax and NIC

45 free practice questions on income tax and NIC, Section B of the ACCA Taxation: UK (TX) question bank. Topics include Capital allowances, NIC, Trading losses, Employment benefits, Income tax, Badges of trade. Each question carries its syllabus reference and a worked explanation. Practise them in the quiz with instant feedback, or read every question with its answer further down this page.

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All 45 income tax and NIC questions

The same questions the quiz above draws on, in syllabus order, each with its answer and worked explanation. All 45 are multiple choice.

Question 1 · Syllabus ref B2g · Employment benefits — company car

Petra was provided with a petrol company car throughout the tax year 2025-26. The list price is £28,000 and CO2 emissions are 55 grams per kilometre (the base level: 17%). Petra contributes £50 per month towards the private use of the car. What is the taxable car benefit for 2025-26?

  1. £4,160
  2. £4,760
  3. £3,560
  4. £4,340
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Car benefit = (List price × appropriate %) − employee contributions. At 55g/km, the percentage is 17%. Gross benefit = £28,000 × 17% = £4,760. Employee contributions = £50 × 12 = £600. Taxable benefit = £4,760 − £600 = £4,160. Option B (£4,760) ignores the employee's contribution. Option C uses an incorrect percentage. Option D is also incorrect. The taxable benefit is £4,160.

Question 2 · Syllabus ref B6a · NIC — Class 1 employer contributions

Thornfield Ltd has one employee, Sasha, paid a salary of £42,000 in the tax year 2025-26. Thornfield Ltd is not eligible for the employment allowance. What is Thornfield Ltd's Class 1 employer NIC liability? (Secondary threshold £5,000 per year; rate 15%)

  1. £6,300
  2. £6,750
  3. £4,950
  4. £5,550
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Class 1 employer NIC = (Salary − secondary threshold) × 15% = (£42,000 − £5,000) × 15% = £37,000 × 15% = £5,550 — option D. Option A (£6,300) applies 15% to the full salary with no threshold deduction. Option B does not correctly apply the £5,000 secondary threshold and 15% rate. Option C reflects using an outdated (pre-April 2025) secondary threshold rather than the current £5,000. Under FA 2025 the secondary threshold fell to £5,000, so option D is correct.

Question 3 · Syllabus ref B5a · Income tax — savings income and starting rate band

In 2025-26, Rachel has employment income of £14,000, savings income of £6,200, and dividend income of £3,000. Her personal allowance is £12,570. What is her income tax liability? (Basic rate band £37,700; savings starting rate band £5,000; savings nil rate £1,000 for basic rate taxpayers; dividend nil rate £500)

  1. £831
  2. £1,031
  3. £1,545
  4. £545
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Step 1 — allocate personal allowance against non-savings first: employment £14,000 − PA £12,570 = £1,430 taxable non-savings. Step 2 — savings starting rate band: available up to £5,000, but reduced £1 for £1 by non-savings taxable income. Available starting rate band = £5,000 − £1,430 = £3,570 at 0%. Step 3 — tax on savings: £3,570 at 0% (starting rate); £1,000 at 0% (savings nil rate, basic rate taxpayer); remaining £6,200 − £3,570 − £1,000 = £1,630 at 20% = £326. Step 4 — tax on non-savings: £1,430 × 20% = £286. Step 5 — tax on dividends: £500 nil rate; £2,500 × 8.75% = £218.75 ≈ £219. Total = £286 + £326 + £219 = £831 — option A. Option B (£1,031) forgets the savings nil rate band (PSA), taxing £2,630 at 20% instead of £1,630. Option C (£1,545) ignores the starting rate band entirely, taxing £5,200 of savings at 20%. Option D (£545) applies the full £5,000 starting rate without restricting it by non-savings income, leaving only £200 of savings taxed at basic rate.

Question 4 · Syllabus ref B3b · Badges of trade

Harriet bought 500 silver bracelets from an overseas manufacturer, stored them in a warehouse, and sold them over six months via an online marketplace at a profit. She modified the bracelets before selling to increase their value. Which badge of trade is most clearly illustrated by the modifications she made?

  1. Motive for acquisition
  2. Frequency of transactions
  3. Work done on the asset
  4. Subject matter of the transaction
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. 'Work done on the asset' is the badge of trade that considers whether an asset was modified or enhanced before sale — strongly suggesting a trading rather than investment motive. The more work done to make an asset more saleable, the clearer the indication of trade. 'Motive for acquisition' relates to the taxpayer's intention at time of purchase. 'Frequency of transactions' considers how often similar transactions occur. 'Subject matter' considers whether the type of asset is commonly the subject of trade.

Question 5 · Syllabus ref B3h · Capital allowances — AIA and cars

In the year ended 31 March 2026, Bright Spark Ltd spent £180,000 on new machinery and £85,000 on a new car with CO2 emissions of 40g/km. The AIA limit is £1,000,000. What capital allowances can be claimed on these two purchases?

  1. AIA of £180,000 on machinery; 18% WDA on the car (cars are excluded from AIA)
  2. AIA of £265,000 on both assets
  3. 100% AIA on machinery; 100% first year allowance on the car
  4. AIA of £180,000 on machinery; 6% WDA on the car
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Cars are specifically excluded from the annual investment allowance. The machinery qualifies for 100% AIA (within the £1,000,000 limit). The car with 40g/km emissions (between 1 and 50g/km, non-zero) qualifies for the main pool 18% writing down allowance — not AIA, not FYA. Option B incorrectly claims AIA on the car. Option C is wrong — the 100% FYA applies only to cars with zero CO2 emissions. Option D uses 6% (special rate pool), which applies to cars over 50g/km.

Question 6 · Syllabus ref B2b · Employment income — basis of assessment

On what basis is employment income assessed for income tax purposes?

  1. Receipts basis — the tax year in which income is received or treated as received
  2. Accruals basis — the tax year in which it is earned
  3. Preceding year basis
  4. Cash basis — when the employer makes the bank payment
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Employment income is assessed on a receipts basis — it is taxed in the tax year in which the employee receives it (or is entitled to receive it). This is different from self-employment income which follows accounting period rules. Options B, C and D all describe incorrect bases for employment income assessment.

Question 7 · Syllabus ref B2e · Mileage allowances — deductible amount

Helena uses her own car for work. In 2025-26 she drives 14,000 business miles. Her employer pays 30p per mile. The approved mileage rates are 45p (first 10,000 miles) and 25p (thereafter). What amount can Helena claim as a deduction against her employment income?

  1. £1,300
  2. £1,500
  3. £700
  4. £2,100
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Helena can claim the excess of the approved rate over what her employer actually pays. First 10,000 miles: approved 45p, paid 30p = 15p shortfall × 10,000 = £1,500 deductible. Next 4,000 miles: approved 25p, paid 30p = employer pays 5p above approved rate, giving a taxable mileage allowance payment of £200. Net deductible = £1,500 − £200 = £1,300. Option B (£1,500) only counts the underpayment on the first 10,000 miles and ignores the overpayment on the next 4,000. Option C and D use incorrect calculations.

Question 8 · Syllabus ref B2g · Car and fuel benefit

Dominic has a petrol company car with a list price of £24,000 and CO2 emissions of 55g/km (17% appropriate percentage). His employer also provides fuel for private use. The fuel benefit base figure is £28,200. What is Dominic's total taxable car and fuel benefit for 2025-26?

  1. £8,874
  2. £4,080
  3. £4,794
  4. £9,672
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Car benefit = £24,000 × 17% = £4,080. Fuel benefit = £28,200 × 17% = £4,794. Total = £4,080 + £4,794 = £8,874. Both benefits use the same appropriate percentage as the car. Option B is the car benefit alone. Option C is the fuel benefit alone. Option D uses a different incorrect calculation.

Question 9 · Syllabus ref B2g · Van benefit

Kwesi is provided with a company van available for private use throughout 2025-26. His employer also pays for all fuel including private use. The van benefit scale charge is £4,020 and the van fuel benefit is £769. What is Kwesi's total taxable benefit?

  1. £769
  2. £4,020
  3. £3,251
  4. £4,789
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. The van benefit scale charge of £4,020 applies where the van is available for private use. The van fuel benefit of £769 is added where the employer pays for private fuel. Total = £4,020 + £769 = £4,789. Option A is the fuel benefit only. Option B is the van benefit only. Option C is the difference, not the total.

Question 10 · Syllabus ref B2f · P11D — purpose

Which of the following correctly describes the purpose of form P11D?

  1. It is submitted by employers to report taxable expenses and benefits provided to directors and employees
  2. It is the employee's annual tax return submitted directly to HMRC
  3. It is submitted by employees to claim deductions for employment expenses
  4. It is the employer's monthly payroll submission under real time information
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Form P11D is submitted by employers to HMRC to report taxable expenses and benefits provided to directors and to employees. It allows HMRC to assess the tax liability on those benefits. The P11D must be submitted by 6 July following the end of the tax year. Option B describes a self-assessment return. Option C describes form P87. Option D describes the full payment submission (FPS) under RTI.

Question 11 · Syllabus ref B3c · Allowable trading expenditure

Nadia is self-employed as a consultant. Which of the following costs is NOT an allowable deduction in computing her tax-adjusted trading profit?

  1. Professional indemnity insurance
  2. Subscriptions to professional bodies relevant to her trade
  3. Depreciation on her office computer
  4. Postage and stationery
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Depreciation is never an allowable deduction for tax purposes — capital allowances are claimed instead on qualifying capital expenditure. Professional indemnity insurance (A), professional subscriptions (B), and postage and stationery (D) are all revenue expenditure incurred wholly and exclusively for business purposes and are fully allowable.

Question 12 · Syllabus ref B3f · Self-employment — commencement profits

Petra started trading on 1 October 2025 and prepares her first accounts to 31 March 2026, showing a profit of £18,000. What are her assessable trading profits for the tax year 2025-26?

  1. £36,000
  2. £9,000
  3. £18,000
  4. £12,000
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. In the first tax year of trading, the assessable profit is the actual profit from the start of trade to 5 April. Petra started 1 October 2025; tax year ends 5 April 2026. Her 6-month accounts show £18,000, all of which falls in 2025-26. Option A (£36,000) annualises the 6-month profit to a full year — incorrect. Option B (£9,000) apportions incorrectly to 3 months. Option D (£12,000) also uses a wrong apportionment.

Question 13 · Syllabus ref B3h · Capital allowances — AIA and WDA

At the start of the year ended 31 March 2026, a trader's main pool tax written down value is £40,000. During the year, equipment costing £8,000 is purchased. No assets are disposed of. What is the maximum capital allowances claim? (AIA limit £1,000,000; WDA 18%)

  1. 18% WDA on the full £48,000 = £8,640
  2. AIA £8,000 only
  3. AIA £8,000 on new equipment; 18% WDA on £40,000 pool = £7,200; total £15,200
  4. 18% WDA on £40,000 only = £7,200
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. The £8,000 equipment qualifies for 100% AIA (well within the £1,000,000 limit), so it is fully deducted in year. The AIA claim means the equipment does not enter the pool. The existing pool of £40,000 gets 18% WDA = £7,200. Maximum claim = £8,000 + £7,200 = £15,200. Option A applies WDA to the combined £48,000 balance — this applies only if AIA is not claimed. Option B claims only AIA. Option D claims only WDA.

Question 14 · Syllabus ref B3i · Trading losses — carry forward

In 2024-25, Yusuf has a trading loss of £15,000 and no other income. He makes no specific loss relief claim. What happens to the loss?

  1. It is lost — no carry forward is available without a specific claim
  2. It is automatically set against capital gains of 2024-25
  3. It is carried forward automatically and set against future profits of the same trade
  4. It is carried back to 2023-24 automatically
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Where no specific claim is made, a trading loss is automatically carried forward and set against future profits of the same trade — no claim is needed and there is no time limit on this relief. Option A is incorrect — the loss is not wasted. Option B is wrong — capital gains offset requires a specific claim after utilising against income. Option D is wrong — carry back also requires a specific claim.

Question 15 · Syllabus ref B3i · Trading losses — earliest relief

In 2025-26, Stefan has a trading loss of £22,000 and employment income of £35,000. He also had employment income of £35,000 in 2024-25. Stefan wants to relieve his loss as early as possible. Which action gives the earliest relief?

  1. Carry back to 2024-25 without first claiming against 2025-26 income
  2. Carry forward against future trading profits
  3. Claim against total income of 2025-26, then carry back any remaining loss to 2024-25
  4. Claim against capital gains of 2025-26 first
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. To relieve the loss as early as possible, Stefan first claims against total income of the loss year (2025-26), then carries back any remaining loss to the previous year (2024-25). He cannot carry back without first claiming in the current year — the current year claim must come first. Option A is wrong — HMRC requires the current year claim before carry back. Option B (carry forward) gives the slowest relief. Option D — capital gains offset is only available after the income claim.

Question 16 · Syllabus ref B3j · Partnership — allocation of profits

A partnership of Amara and Ben prepares accounts to 31 December each year. Profits for the year ended 31 December 2025 are £60,000, shared equally. What is each partner's assessable trading profit for 2025-26?

  1. £60,000 each
  2. £15,000 each
  3. £25,000 each
  4. £30,000 each
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Each partner is assessed individually on their share of profits. The basis period for an established partnership with a 31 December year end is the year of account ending in the tax year — the year ended 31 December 2025 falls in 2025-26. Each partner's share = £60,000 × 50% = £30,000. Option A incorrectly gives each partner the full partnership profit. Options B and C use incorrect profit shares.

Question 17 · Syllabus ref B4a · Property income — allowable deductions

Claudia lets out a residential property. In 2025-26: rental income £14,400; insurance £400; repairs £600; mortgage interest £3,600; new kitchen (capital) £4,500. What is her property business profit before any finance cost restriction?

  1. £5,300
  2. £9,800
  3. £8,900
  4. £13,400
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Allowable revenue deductions: insurance £400 + repairs £600 = £1,000. Mortgage interest is not deducted from property profits — instead it gives a basic rate tax reducer. Capital expenditure (new kitchen £4,500) is not deductible. Profit = £14,400 − £1,000 = £13,400. Option A deducts all four items including mortgage interest and the kitchen. Option B deducts mortgage interest from the profit. Option C makes a different combination of errors.

Question 18 · Syllabus ref B4e · Finance cost restriction — residential property

In 2025-26, Daniel has property profits (before finance costs) of £18,000, employment income of £42,000, and residential mortgage interest of £6,000. How is the mortgage interest relieved?

  1. As a deduction from property profits reducing them to £12,000
  2. As a higher rate (40%) deduction from total income
  3. As a basic rate (20%) tax reducer of £1,200 against Daniel's income tax liability
  4. As a deduction from total income before applying the personal allowance
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Since April 2020, residential property finance costs cannot be deducted from rental profits. Instead they give a basic rate tax reducer: £6,000 × 20% = £1,200, deducted from Daniel's final tax liability. As a higher rate taxpayer (income > £50,270), Daniel loses the higher rate element of relief. Option A shows the old pre-2020 treatment. Options B and D are incorrect — relief is always at basic rate as a credit, not a deduction from income.

Question 19 · Syllabus ref B4g · Dividend income — higher rate taxpayer

In 2025-26, Grace's basic rate band is fully used by her employment income. She also receives dividend income of £8,000. The dividend nil rate band is £500. What is the tax on Grace's dividends?

  1. 8.75% on all £8,000
  2. 39.35% on £7,500 and 0% on £500
  3. 33.75% on all £8,000
  4. 33.75% on £7,500 and 0% on £500
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Grace is a higher rate taxpayer. Dividends are the top slice of income. The first £500 qualifies for the dividend nil rate band at 0%. The remaining £7,500 is taxed at the higher rate dividend rate of 33.75%. Tax = (£7,500 × 33.75%) + (£500 × 0%) = £2,531. Option A applies the basic rate dividend rate (8.75%) — only for basic rate taxpayers. Option B applies the additional rate (39.35%) — only above £125,140. Option C ignores the nil rate band.

Question 20 · Syllabus ref B4h · ISA — tax treatment

Which of the following correctly describes the tax treatment of an Individual Savings Account (ISA)?

  1. Income and gains within an ISA are taxed at a reduced 10% rate
  2. ISA income is taxed at basic rate only regardless of the investor's tax position
  3. Income within an ISA is exempt from income tax but gains are subject to CGT
  4. Income and gains within an ISA are exempt from both income tax and capital gains tax
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. All income (interest, dividends) and capital gains within an ISA are completely exempt from both income tax and capital gains tax. This is the primary benefit of the ISA wrapper. Options A, B and C all incorrectly suggest some tax applies — no tax applies to income or gains within an ISA.

Question 21 · Syllabus ref B5b · Personal allowance — tapering

In 2025-26, Theo has adjusted net income of £108,570. The personal allowance is £12,570 and income limit is £100,000. What personal allowance is available to Theo?

  1. £12,570
  2. £0
  3. £4,285
  4. £8,285
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. The personal allowance is reduced by £1 for every £2 of adjusted net income above £100,000. Excess = £108,570 − £100,000 = £8,570. Reduction = £8,570 ÷ 2 = £4,285. Available PA = £12,570 − £4,285 = £8,285. Option A gives the full unreduced allowance. Option B (zero) only applies when adjusted net income reaches £125,140 or above. Option C is the amount of the reduction, not the remaining allowance.

Question 22 · Syllabus ref B5d · Income tax computation — basic and higher rate

In 2025-26, Roberto has taxable non-savings income of £52,000 (after the personal allowance). The basic rate band is £37,700. What is his income tax liability on non-savings income?

  1. £7,540
  2. £20,800
  3. £10,400
  4. £13,260
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. First £37,700 at 20% = £7,540. Remaining £14,300 (£52,000 − £37,700) at 40% = £5,720. Total = £7,540 + £5,720 = £13,260. Option A (£7,540) only applies the basic rate to the first £37,700 and ignores the higher rate portion. Option B (£20,800) applies 40% to the full £52,000. Option C (£10,400) applies 20% to the full amount.

Question 23 · Syllabus ref B5g · Child benefit tax charge

In 2025-26, Harriet receives child benefit of £2,500. Her adjusted net income is £68,000. The charge begins at £60,000 and is 1% of the child benefit for every £200 of income above the threshold. What is Harriet's high income child benefit charge?

  1. £2,500
  2. £1,250
  3. £500
  4. £1,000
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Income above the threshold: £68,000 − £60,000 = £8,000. Number of complete £200 bands: £8,000 ÷ £200 = 40. Charge = 40 × 1% × £2,500 = 40% × £2,500 = £1,000. Option A (£2,500) would apply if income exceeded £80,000 (100% charge). Option B (£1,250) uses 50% incorrectly. Option C (£500) uses 20%. The charge is £1,000 — 40% of the benefit.

Question 24 · Syllabus ref B6a · NIC — Class 1 employee

In 2025-26, Maya earns £58,000. Primary threshold £12,570; upper earnings limit £50,270. NIC rates: 8% between thresholds; 2% above UEL. What is Maya's Class 1 employee NIC?

  1. £3,016
  2. £4,632
  3. £3,171
  4. £4,136
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Between primary threshold and UEL: (£50,270 − £12,570) × 8% = £37,700 × 8% = £3,016. Above UEL: (£58,000 − £50,270) × 2% = £7,730 × 2% = £155. Total = £3,016 + £155 = £3,171. Option A (£3,016) ignores the 2% on earnings above the UEL. Option B applies 8% to the full salary above the primary threshold. Option D also uses incorrect calculations.

Question 25 · Syllabus ref B7a · Pension contributions — tax relief method

In 2025-26, Felicity earns £80,000 and makes a net personal pension contribution of £12,000 (after basic rate relief at source). What is the gross contribution and how does Felicity claim higher rate relief?

  1. Gross £12,000; no further relief available
  2. Gross £14,400; higher rate relief via self-assessment
  3. Gross £15,000; higher rate relief of £3,000 claimed via self-assessment
  4. Gross £15,000; relief is given automatically via PAYE
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Personal pension contributions are paid net of basic rate (20%) tax relief at source. Gross contribution = £12,000 × 100/80 = £15,000. The basic rate band is extended by £15,000, meaning more of Felicity's income falls at 20% instead of 40%. The additional higher rate relief = £15,000 × 20% = £3,000, claimed through self-assessment. Option A gives the wrong gross and ignores higher rate relief. Option B grosses up at 80/100 incorrectly. Option D is wrong — higher rate relief is not given via PAYE.

Question 26 · Syllabus ref B6b · Employment allowance

Oakfield Ltd has three employees and total employer Class 1 NIC for 2025-26 of £14,200. The employment allowance is £10,500. Oakfield Ltd is eligible for the allowance. What is the net employer NIC payable?

  1. £14,200
  2. £10,500
  3. £3,700
  4. £4,800
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. The employment allowance reduces the employer's Class 1 NIC liability. Oakfield Ltd is eligible so: £14,200 − £10,500 = £3,700 net employer NIC payable. Option A ignores the allowance. Option B is the allowance itself. Option D is incorrect.

Question 27 · Syllabus ref B6a · Class 1A NIC

Redstone Ltd provides its sales director with a company car. The taxable car benefit is £8,400. Class 1A NIC rate is 15%. What is the employer's Class 1A NIC on this benefit?

  1. £1,176
  2. £1,680
  3. £1,260
  4. £840
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Class 1A NIC is paid by the employer on most taxable benefits in kind at the Class 1A rate of 15%. Class 1A = £8,400 × 15% = £1,260. Option A uses 14%. Option B uses 20%. Option D uses 10%. Class 1A is paid by the employer only — the employee pays income tax on the benefit but not NIC.

Question 28 · Syllabus ref B6a · Class 4 NIC — self-employed

In 2025-26, Sanjay has tax-adjusted trading profits of £62,000. Class 4 NIC rates: 6% on profits between £12,570 and £50,270; 2% above. What is Sanjay's Class 4 NIC liability?

  1. £2,497
  2. £3,722
  3. £3,016
  4. £2,262
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Class 4 NIC is charged in two bands. On profits between the lower and upper limits: (£50,270 − £12,570) × 6% = £37,700 × 6% = £2,262. On profits above the upper limit: (£62,000 − £50,270) × 2% = £11,730 × 2% = £235. Total Class 4 NIC = £2,262 + £235 = £2,497. Option D (£2,262) stops at the main band and omits the 2% charge on profits above £50,270. Options B and C apply incorrect rates or bands to the full profit. Remember the upper band is charged at only 2%, mirroring the structure of employee Class 1 NIC.

Question 29 · Syllabus ref B3g · Choice of accounting date

Which of the following is generally considered the most tax-efficient accounting year end for a new self-employed trader to adopt, and why?

  1. 5 April — because the basis period coincides exactly with the tax year, eliminating overlap profits
  2. 31 December — because it maximises the gap between earning profits and paying tax
  3. 31 March — because it is treated as equivalent to 5 April, minimising any overlap issues
  4. 30 April — because it maximises the deferral of tax by giving the longest gap between earning profits and assessment
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. A 30 April year end gives the longest gap between earning profits and when they are assessed and taxed — profits earned in the year ended 30 April 2026 are assessed in 2025-26 (since the accounting year end falls in 2025-26), but the tax is not due until January 2027. This maximises cash flow. Option A (5 April) coincides with the tax year but gives no deferral advantage. Option C (31 March) is treated as equivalent to 5 April for basis period purposes. Option B (31 December) gives a gap but not as long as 30 April.

Question 30 · Syllabus ref B4c · Rent-a-room relief

Phoebe lives in her own home and rents out a furnished room to a lodger, receiving £9,200 gross rents in 2025-26. The rent-a-room limit is £7,500. If Phoebe elects for rent-a-room relief, what is her taxable rental profit?

  1. £0
  2. £9,200
  3. £1,700
  4. £7,500
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Under rent-a-room relief, only the excess of gross receipts over the £7,500 limit is taxable. Taxable profit = £9,200 − £7,500 = £1,700. Option A (£0) would apply if gross receipts were £7,500 or less. Option B (£9,200) ignores the relief entirely. Option D (£7,500) is the exempt limit, not the taxable amount.

Question 31 · Syllabus ref B2h · PAYE — RTI late filing penalties

Meridian Ltd has between 1 and 9 employees. It fails to submit its real time information (RTI) PAYE returns on time for 4 months in the tax year 2025-26. What is the total penalty for late RTI submissions?

  1. £400
  2. £200
  3. £100
  4. £800
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Late RTI filing penalties apply per month of default. For employers with 1–9 employees, the monthly penalty is £100. Meridian Ltd has 4 months of late submissions: 4 × £100 = £400. Option B (£200) would apply to 2 months. Option C (£100) is a single month. Option D (£800) applies to employers with 10–49 employees (£200/month × 4).

Question 32 · Syllabus ref B3d · Cash basis for small businesses

Which of the following statements about the cash basis for small businesses is CORRECT?

  1. Capital expenditure is always deductible under the cash basis, except for cars
  2. Under the cash basis, income is taxed when earned rather than when received
  3. The cash basis is compulsory for businesses with turnover below the VAT threshold
  4. Under the cash basis, loan interest is deductible without limit
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Under the cash basis, most capital expenditure is deductible as a revenue expense (unlike under the accruals basis where capital allowances apply separately). Cars are the exception — they follow the normal capital allowances rules even under cash basis. Option B is wrong — under the cash basis, income is recognised when received (cash), not when earned. Option C is wrong — the cash basis is optional, not compulsory. Option D is wrong — loan interest is restricted to £500 per year under the cash basis.

Question 33 · Syllabus ref B3e · Pre-trading expenditure

Zara spent £2,400 on marketing materials in the 6 months before she started trading on 1 July 2025. The expenditure was of a revenue nature and would have been allowable if incurred after trading commenced. How is this expenditure treated?

  1. It is deductible as if it were incurred on the first day of trading
  2. It is not allowable because it was incurred before trading commenced
  3. It is deductible only if Zara claims a specific capital allowance
  4. It is deductible in the year it was actually incurred
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Pre-trading expenditure that is revenue in nature and would have been allowable if incurred after trading commenced is treated as if incurred on the first day of trading. This allows Zara to deduct £2,400 in the period commencing 1 July 2025. Option B is wrong — specific relief exists for pre-trading expenditure. Option C is wrong — this is revenue expenditure, not capital. Option D is wrong — the expenditure is treated as first-day-of-trading, not in the actual period incurred.

Question 34 · Syllabus ref B3h · Capital allowances — special rate pool

Which of the following assets would be allocated to the SPECIAL RATE pool for capital allowances purposes?

  1. Office furniture purchased for £5,000
  2. A new electric company car with zero CO2 emissions
  3. Integral features of a building, such as electrical systems
  4. A computer used in the business
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Integral features of buildings — including electrical systems, cold water systems, lifts, escalators, heating and air conditioning — are allocated to the special rate pool and attract an 18% or 6% writing down allowance (6% for special rate). AIA can be claimed on integral features. Option A (office furniture) goes to the main pool. Option B (new electric car with zero emissions) qualifies for 100% FYA — it does not enter the pool. Option D (computer) goes to the main pool.

Question 35 · Syllabus ref B3h · Capital allowances — cars

A business purchases a new petrol car with CO2 emissions of 80g/km for £24,000 for use by a salesperson. What capital allowance applies in the first year?

  1. 100% first year allowance
  2. 18% writing down allowance on the main pool
  3. AIA of £24,000
  4. 6% writing down allowance on the special rate pool
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Cars are excluded from the AIA and from first year allowances (unless zero-emission). A car with emissions of 80g/km (over 50g/km) is allocated to the special rate pool at 6% WDA. A car with 1–50g/km would go to the main pool at 18%. New zero-emission cars attract 100% FYA. Option A (100% FYA) is only for new zero-emission cars. Option B (18% main pool) applies to 1–50g/km cars. Option C (AIA) is not available for cars.

Question 36 · Syllabus ref B3h · Capital allowances — structures and buildings

A business constructs a new warehouse at a cost of £500,000. The structures and buildings allowance (SBA) rate is 3% straight line. What is the SBA claim in the first full year?

  1. £90,000
  2. £30,000
  3. £15,000
  4. £50,000
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. The SBA applies at 3% per year on a straight-line basis on the qualifying construction cost. £500,000 × 3% = £15,000 per year. Unlike plant and machinery, there is no writing down balance — the allowance is simply 3% of cost each year. Option A (£90,000) uses an 18% rate. Option B (£30,000) uses 6%. Option D (£50,000) uses 10%.

Question 37 · Syllabus ref B3i · Early years loss relief

Luisa started trading on 1 January 2024. In the tax year 2025-26 (her third year of trading), she makes a loss of £18,000. She has employment income of £25,000 in 2022-23, £28,000 in 2023-24, and £30,000 in 2024-25. Which years can she carry back this loss to under early years (opening years) loss relief?

  1. 2024-25 only
  2. 2025-26 first, then the three preceding years
  3. 2023-24 and 2022-23 only
  4. 2022-23, 2023-24 and 2024-25 in that order
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Early years (opening years) loss relief allows losses arising in the first four tax years of a new trade to be carried back against total income of the three years before the loss year, taking the earliest year first. For a loss in 2025-26, Luisa can carry back to 2022-23, 2023-24, and 2024-25 in that order (earliest first). Option A only allows one year. Option C skips 2024-25. Option B describes current year/carry back relief, not early years relief.

Question 38 · Syllabus ref B4e · Property business loss relief

Yusuf has a single UK property business. In 2025-26 it makes a loss of £6,000. He also has employment income of £45,000 and bank interest of £900. How is the property business loss relieved?

  1. Carried forward and set against the first available future profits of the same property business
  2. Set against his employment income of 2025-26, reducing his taxable income immediately
  3. Set against his total income of 2025-26 and 2024-25 in any order he chooses
  4. Carried back three years against earlier property business profits
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. A UK property business loss is automatically carried forward and set against the first available future profits of the same property business — option A. Unlike trading losses, property losses cannot be set against general/total income, so option B is wrong. There is no claim to relieve the loss against total income of the current or prior year (option C describes trading-loss-style relief). There is no three-year carry-back for property losses (option D); carry-back applies to terminal trading losses, not property losses. The loss simply accumulates until the property business produces profits to absorb it.

Question 39 · Syllabus ref B4d · Short lease premium

Vivienne grants a 30-year lease and receives a premium of £100,000. What amount is treated as property income and what is the capital element? (Formula: taxable = Premium × (51 − n) / 50)

  1. £100,000 income; £0 capital
  2. £58,000 income; £42,000 capital
  3. £50,000 income; £50,000 capital
  4. £42,000 income; £58,000 capital
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. When a short lease premium is received (lease of 50 years or less), part is treated as property income. Taxable amount = Premium × (51 − n)/50, where n = lease duration in years. Taxable = £100,000 × (51 − 30)/50 = £100,000 × 21/50 = £42,000. Capital element = £100,000 − £42,000 = £58,000. Option A treats the full premium as income. Option B reverses income and capital. Option C incorrectly splits 50/50.

Question 40 · Syllabus ref B5e · Interest — qualifying loan

Edward takes out a loan to purchase a share in a partnership in which he works as a partner. He pays interest of £1,800 on the loan in 2025-26. How is this interest treated for income tax purposes?

  1. It is deductible from Edward's total income as a qualifying loan interest payment
  2. It cannot be deducted — loan interest is never allowable for individuals
  3. It is deducted from partnership profits before allocation to partners
  4. It qualifies only as a basic rate tax reducer
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Interest on a loan taken out to purchase a share in a partnership in which the borrower works is a qualifying loan interest payment, deductible from total income. This reduces Edward's adjusted net income and his income tax liability. Option B is incorrect — qualifying loan interest is specifically allowed. Option C is wrong — the interest is not deducted in the partnership computation. Option D is wrong — it is a full deduction from total income, not a basic rate reducer.

Question 41 · Syllabus ref B5f · Gift Aid donations

In 2025-26, Monica earns £52,000 and makes a Gift Aid donation of £1,600 (net). She is a higher rate taxpayer. What is the gross donation and how is the higher rate relief given?

  1. Gross £1,600; basic rate relief only
  2. Gross £1,280; no further relief
  3. Gross £2,000; basic rate relief only
  4. Gross £2,000; higher rate relief of £400 via self-assessment
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Gift Aid donations are treated as paid net of 20% basic rate tax. Gross donation = £1,600 × 100/80 = £2,000. The basic rate band is extended by the gross donation (£2,000). For a higher rate taxpayer, this means an additional 20% of the gross donation is reclaimed via self-assessment: £2,000 × 20% = £400. Option A gives the wrong gross and ignores higher rate relief. Option C gives the correct gross but ignores higher rate relief. Option B uses the wrong gross-up.

Question 42 · Syllabus ref B2c · Employment vs self-employment

Which of the following factors is most indicative of EMPLOYMENT (rather than self-employment) status?

  1. The worker is obliged to accept work when offered, and the engager is obliged to provide work (mutuality of obligation)
  2. The worker provides their own equipment and tools
  3. The worker can send a substitute to perform the work
  4. The worker bears the financial risk of the job
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Mutuality of obligation — where the worker is obliged to accept work offered and the engager must provide it — is a key indicator of employment. There is an ongoing, reciprocal obligation between both parties. Option B (own equipment) indicates self-employment. Option C (right of substitution) indicates self-employment — a genuine right to send a substitute suggests no personal service. Option D (financial risk) indicates self-employment — employees are shielded from business risk.

Question 43 · Syllabus ref B5a · Savings income — starting rate band

In 2025-26, Theo has no employment income. His only income is savings interest of £7,000. His personal allowance is £12,570. Is any of the savings interest taxable?

  1. Yes — £7,000 is fully taxable at 20%
  2. No — the personal allowance covers all the savings income
  3. Yes — £1,500 is taxable at 20% after the personal allowance and savings starting rate band
  4. No — the personal allowance plus savings starting rate band cover the £7,000 fully
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Personal allowance = £12,570 covers the first £12,570 of income. Theo's total income is only £7,000, which is less than the personal allowance. Therefore no income tax is payable and the savings starting rate band and savings nil rate band are not even needed — the personal allowance alone makes the entire £7,000 tax-free. Options A and C suggest tax is payable when income is below the PA. Option D gives the right answer but for the wrong reason — it's the PA that covers it, not a combination.

Question 44 · Syllabus ref B2g · Benefit — beneficial loan

In 2025-26, Paula's employer gives her a loan of £30,000 at 0% interest. The official rate of interest is 3.75%. No repayments are made during the year. What is the taxable benefit?

  1. £0 — loans below £10,000 are exempt
  2. £30,000
  3. £1,125
  4. £750
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. A beneficial loan creates a taxable benefit equal to the notional interest: loan × official rate = £30,000 × 3.75% = £1,125. Note: loans of £10,000 or less are exempt — but Paula's loan of £30,000 exceeds this threshold, so the full benefit applies. Option A incorrectly applies the exemption to a loan over £10,000. Option B is the loan principal, not the benefit. Option D uses an incorrect rate.

Question 45 · Syllabus ref B7b · Income tax planning — married couples

Arthur earns £90,000 and his wife Bella earns £14,000. They jointly own a rental property generating £8,000 income. Which of the following is a tax planning technique they could use to reduce their combined income tax?

  1. Transfer Arthur's personal allowance to Bella
  2. Ask HMRC to reallocate the rental income to Bella as she has lower income
  3. Transfer the rental property entirely to Bella so the income is taxed at her lower rate rather than Arthur's higher rate
  4. Elect for joint assessment so income is combined and split 50/50
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Transferring the rental property to Bella means the rental income (£8,000) will be taxed at her rate (20%) instead of Arthur's higher rate (40%), saving tax. Transfers between spouses are on a no gain/no loss basis for CGT, and stamp duty land tax generally applies but the income-shifting benefit can be significant. Option A — Arthur's income is well above £100,000 and his PA is already reduced; transfer of PA is not available in this scenario. Option B — HMRC cannot reallocate income. Option D — there is no 'joint assessment' for income tax in the UK.

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