FR: Preparation of financial statements
49 free practice questions on preparation of financial statements, Section D of the ACCA Financial Reporting (FR) question bank. Topics include Consolidation, CSPL, Consolidated SPLOCI, Statement of financial position, Cash flows, Statement of cash flows. Each question carries its syllabus reference and a worked explanation. Practise them in the quiz with instant feedback, or read every question with its answer further down this page.
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All 49 preparation of financial statements questions
The same questions the quiz above draws on, in syllabus order, each with its answer and worked explanation. 31 are multiple choice and 18 are numerical, where you work the answer out before choosing it.
Under IFRS 18 (which replaces IAS 1 for annual periods beginning on or after 1 January 2027), the statement of profit or loss must present income and expenses in specific categories. Which of the following is a required category under IFRS 18?
- Administrative expenses and distribution costs — these are the only two permitted categories
- All items must be presented gross — netting is prohibited under IFRS 18
- Profit before tax and profit after tax — all line items are optional
- Operating, investing, and financing categories — with a clear distinction between operating and non-operating items
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. IFRS 18 introduces a structured income statement with five categories: (1) operating, (2) investing, (3) financing, (4) income taxes, and (5) discontinued operations. This replaces the more flexible IAS 1 format. The key change is the mandatory separation of operating from investing and financing activities, improving comparability. Administrative and distribution costs (A) are sub-classifications within operating — they are not the only categories. Netting prohibitions (B) apply to specific items, not everything. The line items within categories (C) have mandatory requirements.
Hartfield Co's profit before tax is $650,000. Depreciation $95,000. Profit on disposal of equipment $18,000. Increase in receivables $40,000. Decrease in payables $25,000. Increase in inventory $15,000. Tax paid $120,000. What is the net cash from operating activities (indirect method)?
- $527,000
- $645,000
- $577,000
- $647,000
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Indirect method: Start with PBT $650,000. Add back depreciation +$95,000. Remove profit on disposal −$18,000 (non-operating item — add back loss/remove gain). Working capital: receivables increase −$40,000; inventory increase −$15,000; payables decrease −$25,000. Cash generated from operations = $650,000 + $95,000 − $18,000 − $40,000 − $15,000 − $25,000 = $647,000. Less tax paid −$120,000 = $527,000. Option B includes profit on disposal instead of removing it. Option C ($577,000) treats the decrease in payables as a source of cash (adding $25,000) instead of a use (subtracting it). Option D is cash before tax. Note: the profit on disposal is excluded from operating activities — the full proceeds appear under investing activities.
Which of the following items would appear in the statement of changes in equity but NOT in profit or loss?
- Depreciation charge for the year
- Revaluation surplus arising on land revalued under IAS 16
- Finance costs on bank borrowings
- Impairment loss on goodwill
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. The statement of changes in equity captures all changes in equity from non-owner sources, including items in OCI that do not pass through profit or loss. Revaluation surpluses under IAS 16 are recognised in OCI and transferred to the revaluation surplus in equity — they never enter profit or loss (unless they reverse a previous revaluation loss that was charged to P&L). Depreciation (A), finance costs (C), and impairment of goodwill (D) are all recognised in profit or loss. Dividends paid and share issues also appear in the SOCE.
Meadowbrook Co's trial balance shows inventory at 31 October 20X4 of $180,000 (per the physical count). The accountant identifies: (1) goods costing $12,000, purchased FOB shipping point, that were in transit at the year end and have been correctly included in the count; (2) damaged goods in inventory with a cost of $8,000 and a net realisable value of $3,000. What is the correct closing inventory figure for the financial statements?
- $180,000
- $168,000
- $175,000
- $172,000
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Take each item in turn. (1) Goods purchased FOB shipping point belong to the buyer from the moment they leave the supplier, so although still in transit they are correctly owned by Meadowbrook and correctly included in the count — no adjustment. (2) Inventory is measured at the lower of cost and net realisable value, so the damaged goods are written down from cost $8,000 to NRV $3,000, a reduction of $5,000. Correct closing inventory = $180,000 − $5,000 = $175,000. Option A makes no adjustment at all. Option B wrongly excludes the $12,000 of goods in transit (they are owned under FOB shipping point). Option D writes the damaged goods down by their full cost of $8,000 instead of down to NRV.
Where should a deferred tax liability be presented on the statement of financial position?
- Within current liabilities, alongside the current tax liability
- Netted against any deferred tax asset, always shown as a single net figure
- As part of equity, as it is an obligation to the tax authorities that reduces shareholders' funds
- As a non-current liability, as it represents obligations arising from timing differences that will not reverse within 12 months
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Deferred tax liabilities are presented as non-current liabilities — they arise from temporary differences that will reverse in future periods, typically beyond 12 months. IAS 12 permits offsetting a deferred tax asset against a deferred tax liability only when the entity has a legally enforceable right to offset current tax assets/liabilities and they relate to the same tax authority. Option A places deferred tax with current liabilities, which is incorrect. Option B is partly right (netting is permitted) but says 'always' — netting requires specific conditions. Option C is completely wrong.
Thornwick Co sells equipment for $95,000. The equipment had cost $180,000 and had accumulated depreciation of $110,000. Under the indirect method, how are these transactions reflected in the statement of cash flows?
- Profit on disposal of $25,000 removed from operating activities; $95,000 proceeds shown under investing activities
- $95,000 under operating activities; depreciation of $110,000 added back in operating activities
- $95,000 under financing activities; the book loss/gain adjusted in operating activities
- $70,000 (book value) shown under investing activities; $25,000 gain shown in profit or loss
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Carrying amount = $180,000 − $110,000 = $70,000. Proceeds = $95,000. Gain on disposal = $25,000. Indirect method treatment: The gain of $25,000 is included in operating profit — it must be removed (deducted) from profit in the operating section because the full proceeds belong in investing activities. The full $95,000 proceeds are shown as an inflow under investing activities. Option B incorrectly shows proceeds under operating activities. Option C puts proceeds under financing activities. Option D uses carrying amount rather than full proceeds under investing activities.
At 31 December 20X3, Eastway Co recognised a warranty provision of $120,000. During 20X4, warranty claims paid out were $35,000. At 31 December 20X4, the revised estimate of future warranty costs is $95,000. What is the charge/(credit) to profit or loss in the year ended 31 December 20X4?
- $10,000 charge
- $10,000 credit
- $95,000 charge
- $35,000 credit
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Work through the provision account. Opening provision $120,000, less claims paid during the year $35,000 (these are charged against the provision, not profit or loss), leaves $85,000. The provision required at the year end is $95,000, so it must be topped up by $95,000 − $85,000 = $10,000, which is a charge to profit or loss. Equivalently, the total expense for the year = closing provision $95,000 + claims paid $35,000 − opening provision $120,000 = $10,000 charge. Option B has the direction wrong — this is a charge, not a credit. Option C uses the closing estimate as if it were the whole charge. Option D treats the claims paid as a profit or loss credit, but utilisation reduces the liability rather than affecting profit directly.
Langford Co borrows $3,000,000 specifically to construct a new factory. Construction begins 1 January 20X4 and the factory is ready for use on 30 September 20X4. The interest rate is 6% per annum. How much borrowing cost should be capitalised as part of the cost of the factory?
- $180,000
- $45,000
- $135,000
- $0 — borrowing costs must be expensed under IAS 23
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Under IAS 23, borrowing costs directly attributable to the acquisition, construction, or production of a qualifying asset must be capitalised. Capitalisation period: from when activities begin until the asset is ready for use — 1 January to 30 September = 9 months. Borrowing costs to capitalise = $3,000,000 × 6% × 9/12 = $135,000. Option A uses the full year: $3,000,000 × 6% = $180,000. Option B calculates 3 months only. Option D is wrong — IAS 23 requires capitalisation, not expensing, for qualifying assets.
Partridge Co acquires 80% of Strawberry Co on 1 July 20X5 for $4,200,000, plus deferred consideration of $2,400,000 payable on 30 June 20X7 (discount factor at 8% for 2 years: 0.857). NCI is measured at fair value: 20% × 1,000,000 shares × $13.00 = $2,600,000. Net assets of Strawberry Co at acquisition = $5,800,000. What is goodwill?
- $3,854,800
- $2,456,800
- $5,254,800
- $3,056,800
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Per the SD25 examiner question: Consideration = $4,200,000 + PV of deferred consideration. PV = $2,400,000 × 0.857 = $2,056,800. Total consideration = $4,200,000 + $2,056,800 = $6,256,800. NCI at fair value = $2,600,000. Total = $8,856,800. Less fair value of net assets at acquisition = $5,800,000. Goodwill = $8,856,800 − $5,800,000 = $3,056,800. Using the undiscounted deferred consideration instead would give $4,200,000 + $2,400,000 + $2,600,000 − $5,800,000 = $3,400,000. The examiner specifically noted candidates failing to discount deferred consideration. That figure is not among the options, and $3,854,800, $2,456,800 and $5,254,800 do not follow from any consistent treatment of the consideration, NCI and net assets.
When calculating goodwill on acquisition, IFRS 3 permits NCI to be measured using two methods. What are the two methods and how do they differ?
- Full goodwill method (NCI at fair value) and proportionate method (NCI at share of identifiable net assets) — full goodwill method recognises goodwill attributable to NCI as well as to the parent
- Both methods always give the same goodwill figure — the choice is purely presentational
- The full goodwill method uses NCI at book value; the proportionate method uses NCI at fair value
- Only the proportionate method is permitted under IFRS 3 — full goodwill is a US GAAP concept
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. IFRS 3 allows: (1) Full goodwill (fair value) method — NCI measured at fair value at acquisition date; total goodwill includes the element attributable to NCI. (2) Proportionate share method — NCI measured as the NCI's proportion of identifiable net assets; goodwill only reflects the parent's share. The full goodwill method gives a higher goodwill figure (it includes NCI's share). Option B is incorrect — they almost always give different goodwill figures. Option C reverses the methods. Option D is wrong — both methods are permitted under IFRS 3.
Glooble Co (parent, 55%) acquired Stekk Co on 1 June 20X8 when Stekk's retained earnings were $500,000. On 1 June 20X8, Stekk sold machinery to Glooble for $560,000 (carrying amount $448,000, remaining life 10 years). At 31 May 20X9: Glooble retained earnings $1,660,000; Stekk retained earnings $740,000. What are consolidated retained earnings? (Replicating SD25 examiner question.)
- $1,686,000
- $1,741,600
- $1,730,400
- $1,736,560
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. This is an upstream sale (subsidiary Stekk sold to parent Glooble), so the unrealised profit sits in the seller — the subsidiary. Unrealised profit on the transfer = $560,000 − $448,000 = $112,000. The asset is now depreciated by Glooble on the inflated $560,000, so the group reverses one year of excess depreciation: $112,000 ÷ 10 = $11,200. Net adjustment to the subsidiary's post-acquisition profit = −$112,000 + $11,200 = −$100,800. Stekk's post-acquisition profit = ($740,000 − $500,000) − $100,800 = $139,200. Because both the unrealised profit and the depreciation adjustment are in the subsidiary, the group takes its 55% share of the adjusted figure: 55% × $139,200 = $76,560. Consolidated retained earnings = parent's $1,660,000 + $76,560 = $1,736,560. Option B applies 55% to the unrealised profit but then adds the $11,200 depreciation at 100%, which is inconsistent. The examiner (SD25) noted most candidates missed the depreciation adjustment altogether.
Gamara Co acquired 30% of Shintee Co for $207m on 1 January 20X5. Shintee paid a dividend of $22m on 10 June 20X5. Shintee's profit for the year ended 30 September 20X5 was $62m. What is the carrying amount of the associate at 30 September 20X5? (Replicating the SD25 examiner question.)
- $219m
- $221m
- $214m
- $226m
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Under the equity method, the carrying amount = cost + group share of post-acquisition profit − group share of post-acquisition dividends received. Cost = $207m. Gamara acquired the shares on 1 January 20X5, so only the profit for the 9 months to 30 September 20X5 is post-acquisition: $62m × 9/12 = $46.5m, and the group's 30% share = $13.95m. The $22m dividend was paid on 10 June 20X5 (after acquisition), so Gamara's 30% share, $6.6m, is a return of investment that reduces the carrying amount. Carrying amount = $207m + $13.95m − $6.6m = $214.35m ≈ $214m. Option A ($219m) forgets to time-apportion the profit. Option B ($221m) forgets to deduct the dividend. Option D ($226m) makes both errors. The examiner (SD25) flagged time-apportionment and the dividend deduction as the two steps candidates most often miss.
Profysh Co (parent, 80%) acquired Smockhaus Co on 1 August 20X6. Revaluation surplus: Profysh opening $250m, closing $375m; Smockhaus opening $50m at acquisition, closing $75m at 31 July 20X7. What is the consolidated revaluation surplus? (Replicating SD25 examiner question.)
- $400m
- $435m
- $450m
- $395m
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. The consolidated revaluation surplus = the parent's full closing surplus + the group's share of the subsidiary's POST-acquisition movement in surplus. The subsidiary's pre-acquisition surplus is excluded because it arose before control was obtained. Smockhaus's post-acquisition increase = $75m − $50m = $25m, and the group's 80% share = $20m. Consolidated revaluation surplus = Profysh's closing $375m + $20m = $395m. Option A ($400m) includes 100% of the subsidiary's post-acquisition increase ($375m + $25m). Option B ($435m) takes 80% of the subsidiary's full closing balance ($375m + $60m) rather than just the post-acquisition movement. Option C ($450m) simply adds both companies' full closing balances ($375m + $75m), ignoring both pre-acquisition exclusion and the ownership percentage.
Parent Co (75%) acquired Sub Co on 1 October 20X4. The group's year end is 31 March 20X5. Sub Co's revenue for the full year ended 31 March 20X5 was $1,200,000. How much revenue from Sub Co is included in the consolidated statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 March 20X5?
- $300,000 — time-apportioned for 3 months
- $1,200,000 — the full year of revenue since Sub Co is now part of the group
- $900,000 — 75% of the full year (parent's share)
- $600,000 — time-apportioned for the 6 months from 1 October 20X4 to 31 March 20X5
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Only post-acquisition results are consolidated, and revenue is consolidated at 100% (the non-controlling interest is dealt with at the profit level, not by scaling revenue). Sub Co was acquired on 1 October 20X4 and the year end is 31 March 20X5, so the post-acquisition period is 6 months. Consolidated revenue from Sub Co = 6/12 × $1,200,000 = $600,000. Option C ($900,000) applies the parent's 75% share — proportionate consolidation, which the examiner (SD25) flags as a fundamental error scoring zero. Option B ($1,200,000) includes the full year, ignoring that pre-acquisition revenue is excluded. Option A ($300,000) miscounts the post-acquisition period as 3 months rather than 6.
Parent Co sells goods to Sub Co (80% subsidiary) at a markup of 25% on cost. During the year, intercompany sales total $3,000,000. At year end, Sub Co still holds $900,000 of these goods in inventory. What is the unrealised profit to be eliminated, and does this affect NCI?
- PURP $225,000; does affect NCI — charged 20% to NCI
- PURP $180,000; does not affect NCI since parent is the seller
- PURP $180,000; does affect NCI — charged 20% to NCI
- PURP $225,000; does not affect NCI since parent is the seller
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Per the SD25 examiner: PURP on goods held at year end. Goods in Sub's inventory = $900,000 at transfer price. Markup is 25% on cost, so profit element = 25/125 × $900,000 = $180,000. The examiner specifically flagged using margin (20% of $900,000 = $180,000) vs markup (25/125 × $900,000 = $180,000) — both give $180,000 here, but the correct formula is markup on cost. Since the parent sold to the subsidiary, the unrealised profit is 100% the parent's — the NCI is not affected (NCI relates to the subsidiary's profit, not the parent's). The examiner explicitly stated this. $225,000 applies the 25% mark-up to the transfer price instead of to cost.
Sub Co (80% owned by Parent Co) pays a dividend of $2,000,000. Parent Co receives its share. In the consolidated financial statements, what adjustment is required?
- Eliminate the full $2,000,000 dividend from the group's statements
- No adjustment — dividends are external transactions
- Eliminate only the $1,600,000 received by Parent Co from the consolidated profit or loss
- Eliminate the full $2,000,000 from consolidated retained earnings
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Per the SD25 examiner: The intragroup dividend to eliminate is only the portion received by the parent ($2,000,000 × 80% = $1,600,000). The $400,000 paid to NCI is an external transaction — it correctly reduces NCI in the SOCIE. The examiner noted many candidates eliminated the full $2,000,000, which would incorrectly reduce profit attributable to NCI. Option A eliminates the full amount. Option B treats the dividend as entirely external. Option D adjusts retained earnings rather than P&L/dividend income.
On acquisition, Sub Co had plant with carrying amount $500,000 and fair value $620,000. Remaining useful life at acquisition = 4 years. The acquisition was 9 months before the group's year end. What additional depreciation is charged in the consolidated financial statements in the first year?
- $22,500
- $120,000
- $15,000
- $30,000
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. The fair value uplift on the plant = $620,000 − $500,000 = $120,000. This uplift is depreciated over the remaining useful life of 4 years, giving annual additional depreciation of $120,000 ÷ 4 = $30,000. However, the subsidiary was acquired only 9 months before the year end, so just 9 months of that additional depreciation is charged in the first consolidated year: $30,000 × 9/12 = $22,500. Option D ($30,000) is the full-year charge with no time-apportionment — the error the examiner (SD25) flags as fundamental. Option B ($120,000) charges the whole fair value adjustment in one year. Option C ($15,000) time-apportions for only 6 months. Additional depreciation on a fair value adjustment must always be time-apportioned for a mid-year acquisition.
On acquisition, Sub Co held inventory with a carrying amount of $200,000 and a fair value of $240,000. By year end, all this inventory had been sold. How does the $40,000 fair value adjustment affect the consolidated statement of profit or loss?
- Cost of sales is increased by $40,000 — the fair value write-up means Sub's inventory was acquired at a higher cost from the group's perspective
- Cost of sales is decreased by $40,000 — the fair value write-up reduces the cost of inventory sold
- Revenue is decreased by $40,000 — the adjustment reduces the sales price recognised
- The adjustment is deferred until the following year when Sub prepares its own accounts
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. The fair value adjustment increases the 'cost' of inventory from the group's perspective at acquisition. When inventory is sold, the full fair value (not just Sub's book value) is charged to cost of sales. This increases COS by $40,000, reducing consolidated profit. The examiner (SD25, Note 2) specifically highlighted this: the inventory FV adjustment increases COS when the inventory is sold. Option B incorrectly reduces COS. Option C adjusts revenue. Option D defers incorrectly — the inventory was sold in the period so the cost flows through immediately.
The Granger Group acquired Pickwick Co, generating goodwill of $800,000. An annual impairment review reveals the CGU's carrying amount is $3,200,000 and its recoverable amount is $2,900,000. The CGU contains: goodwill $800,000; other net assets $2,400,000. How is the impairment loss allocated?
- $150,000 to goodwill; $150,000 to other net assets
- $300,000 to goodwill; $0 to other net assets
- $300,000 pro-rata to goodwill and other assets
- $100,000 to goodwill; $200,000 to other net assets
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Impairment loss = $3,200,000 − $2,900,000 = $300,000. Under IAS 36, impairment losses in a CGU are allocated first to goodwill. The $300,000 is less than the goodwill balance of $800,000, so it is fully absorbed by goodwill. Goodwill reduced by $300,000; other assets unaffected. The impairment cannot reduce any other asset below its individual recoverable amount. Option A splits equally. Option C applies pro-rata without the priority rule. Option D uses arbitrary allocation.
Arden Co acquires 100% of Bertram Co for $800,000. The fair value of Bertram's identifiable net assets at acquisition is $950,000. How is this 'negative goodwill' (gain from bargain purchase) treated under IFRS 3?
- Recognised as goodwill of negative $150,000, amortised over its useful life
- Recognised in other comprehensive income as a reserve
- Recognised immediately in profit or loss as a gain of $150,000, after reassessing that all identifiable assets/liabilities have been correctly valued
- Deducted from the cost of non-current assets acquired
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Under IFRS 3, when the consideration paid is less than the fair value of net assets acquired (a bargain purchase), the entity must first reassess all identifiable assets and liabilities to ensure no errors. After reassessment, any remaining excess (gain from bargain purchase) is recognised immediately in profit or loss. Option A treats it as negative goodwill and amortises it — this was the old UK GAAP approach, not IFRS 3. Option B incorrectly uses OCI. Option D reduces asset values — not permitted; the gain goes to P&L.
Why are pre-acquisition reserves of a subsidiary excluded from consolidated retained earnings?
- Because they belong to the NCI shareholders, not the parent
- Because pre-acquisition profits are always distributable and must be paid as dividends before consolidation
- Because IFRS 10 prohibits including historical subsidiary reserves in group accounts
- Because they formed part of the net assets used to calculate goodwill at acquisition — including them in consolidated reserves would double-count them
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Goodwill = Consideration + NCI − Fair value of net assets at acquisition. Net assets at acquisition include pre-acquisition retained earnings. If the group also included those pre-acquisition reserves in consolidated retained earnings, the same amount would be counted twice: once in the goodwill calculation (reducing goodwill) and once directly in consolidated reserves. Only POST-acquisition profits represent value created under group ownership and are included in consolidated retained earnings. Option A is partly true (NCI's share exists) but not the reason for exclusion. Options B and C are incorrect.
Bramble Group owns 75% of Foxglove Co. Foxglove's profit for the year (post all consolidation adjustments) is $480,000. What is the profit attributable to the NCI?
- $120,000
- $360,000
- $160,000
- $480,000
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. NCI = 25% of Foxglove's post-adjustment profit = 25% × $480,000 = $120,000. Profit attributable to owners of parent = 75% × $480,000 = $360,000. Total consolidated profit = $480,000. A common error (examiner SD25) is to forget to include the NCI line in the CSPL entirely, losing marks for both the NCI amount and the profit attributable to owners figure. Option B is the parent's share. Option C uses wrong percentage. Option D is the total before attribution.
Parent Co disposes of its entire 80% holding in Sub Co during the year, resulting in Sub Co becoming a discontinued operation. Which of the following correctly describes the presentation in the consolidated financial statements?
- Sub Co's results for the full year are included in all line items of the consolidated P&L
- Sub Co's post-disposal results are excluded; only pre-disposal results are included, with a single-line disclosure of profit/loss from discontinued operations
- Sub Co's results are excluded entirely from all financial statements for the year
- Sub Co's results are shown for the full year but on a separate discontinued operations section
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. When a subsidiary is disposed of during the year, its results are included in the consolidated SPLOCI only for the period it was controlled (pre-disposal). Under IFRS 5, if it meets the definition of a discontinued operation, its results are presented as a single line item in the statement of profit or loss ('profit/loss from discontinued operations') separate from continuing operations. Sub Co's results are not excluded entirely (C) — they are included up to disposal. Full year inclusion (A) is incorrect — control ceased at disposal. The results go to a single discontinued line (D), but only for the pre-disposal period.
Why does IFRS 10 require the use of coterminous year ends when preparing consolidated financial statements?
- Because it reduces the accounting fees charged by auditors
- Because subsidiary year ends must match the parent's national reporting requirements
- To ensure the consolidated financial statements reflect the group's financial position at the same point in time — using different year ends would create inconsistent reporting dates
- To allow subsidiaries to avoid preparing their own individual financial statements
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Consolidated statements present the group as a single economic unit at a single point in time. If a subsidiary had a year end three months after the parent, the consolidated balance sheet would mix the parent's position at March with the subsidiary's position at June — making the consolidated picture meaningless. IFRS 10 requires coterminous year ends (or adjustment to use comparable dates). This is about representational faithfulness, not cost reduction (A) or legal requirements (B). Subsidiaries still prepare their own statements (D).
Partridge Co agreed to pay deferred consideration of $2,400,000 on 30 June 20X7 (2 years after acquisition on 1 July 20X5). The discount rate is 8%. PV at acquisition = $2,400,000 × 0.857 = $2,056,800. For the year ended 31 March 20X6 (9 months post-acquisition), what is the unwinding of discount charged to finance costs?
- $192,000
- $144,000
- $165,000
- $123,408
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. The discount on deferred consideration unwinds over time as a finance cost. Annual unwinding = opening present value × discount rate = $2,056,800 × 8% = $164,544. The acquisition was on 1 July 20X5 and the year end is 31 March 20X6, so only 9 months fall in the period: $164,544 × 9/12 = $123,408. The examiner (SD25) stressed that this charge appears below operating profit, within finance costs. Option A ($192,000) applies 8% to the undiscounted $2,400,000 for a full year. Option B ($144,000) applies 8% to the undiscounted $2,400,000 for 9 months. Option C ($165,000) is the full-year unwinding on the present value with no time-apportionment.
When preparing a consolidated statement of profit or loss, which of the following represents the correct first step recommended by the examiner?
- Set up a pro forma consolidation immediately, adding 100% of parent and 100% of subsidiary (time-apportioned) results line by line
- Calculate goodwill and impairment before opening the SPLOCI
- Prepare the parent's individual P&L first, then add the subsidiary's figures
- Calculate NCI first, then work backwards to find parent's share of profit
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. The examiner (SD25) was explicit: set up the pro forma first. Include the parent's results in full for the year. Include the subsidiary's results in full for the post-acquisition period (time-apportioned if mid-year acquisition). Then work through adjustments note by note. This ensures no lines are omitted and the NCI section is included from the outset. Options B and D are secondary calculations done after the pro forma. Option C would create a partial P&L first, increasing the risk of errors.
Parent Co uses straight-line depreciation for its property. Newly acquired Sub Co uses the reducing balance method. Before preparing consolidated financial statements, what adjustment is required?
- Sub Co's depreciation method is acceptable — IFRS permits any method
- Sub Co's financial statements must be restated to use Parent Co's accounting policy (straight-line) before consolidation
- Parent Co should change to reducing balance to match Sub Co
- No adjustment is needed — different subsidiaries can use different accounting policies in a group
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. IFRS 10 requires uniform accounting policies across the group when preparing consolidated financial statements. If Sub Co uses a different policy, its results must be adjusted to the group policy before consolidation. The group chooses which policy to apply — typically the parent's — and all entities are aligned to it. Option A ignores the uniformity requirement. Option C would require the parent to change, which is possible but less common than adjusting the subsidiary. Option D explicitly contradicts the IFRS 10 requirement for uniform policies.
Hathaway Co acquires 100% of Verona Co for $1,200,000. After careful reassessment of all identifiable assets and liabilities, the fair value of net assets is confirmed at $1,350,000. The $150,000 excess is a genuine bargain purchase. Where is this recognised and when?
- In the statement of financial position as a capital reserve
- In other comprehensive income in the period of acquisition
- Immediately in profit or loss in the period of acquisition
- Deferred and released to profit or loss over 5 years
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. IFRS 3 requires a gain from a bargain purchase to be recognised immediately in profit or loss after the entity confirms that all identifiable assets and liabilities have been correctly valued. This is a genuine economic gain — the acquirer paid less than fair value for the net assets. It appears in profit or loss, not in equity reserves (A), OCI (B), or as a deferred item (D). The reassessment step is mandatory — if it is omitted and the gain is recognised without checking for errors, this would be a departure from IFRS 3.
Inverness Co holds 45% of the voting shares of Dundee Co but has the contractual right to appoint six of the ten board members. Which of the following correctly classifies this investment?
- Associate — Inverness holds less than 50% of shares, so cannot have control
- Joint venture — two parties share control equally
- Simple investment — held at cost or fair value with no consolidation
- Subsidiary — Inverness has power over Dundee through its board appointment rights, despite holding less than 50% of shares
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Under IFRS 10, control is determined by substance, not just share ownership. Control = power + exposure to variable returns + ability to use power to affect returns. Inverness has power through board appointment rights — it can direct relevant activities by controlling six of ten board members, regardless of its 45% shareholding. This is a subsidiary. Associates (A) require 20–50% with significant influence but without control. A joint venture (B) requires joint control by agreement. Option C ignores the contractual power Inverness exercises.
Parent owns 70% of Sub. A student prepares the consolidated revenue by taking 70% of Sub's revenue plus 100% of Parent's revenue. The examiner would mark this as:
- A fundamental error — subsidiary results are included in full (100%) for the post-acquisition period, not at the ownership percentage
- Correct — the parent's economic interest is 70% so only 70% of subsidiary revenue is recognised
- Acceptable as an alternative method under IFRS 10
- Correct only if the acquisition occurred mid-year
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Proportionate consolidation — including only the parent's ownership % of a subsidiary's results — is a fundamental error under IFRS 10. The group controls 100% of the subsidiary's activities; therefore 100% of the subsidiary's assets, liabilities, income, and expenses are included in the consolidation. The NCI's interest is shown separately at the bottom of the CSPL and in equity. The examiner (SD25) stated explicitly: this is a fundamental accounting error and no marks are awarded for consolidating parent and subsidiary when this mistake is made.
Regent Group holds 30% of Lynton Co (an associate) acquired for $500,000 when Lynton's net assets were $1,400,000 and retained earnings were $200,000. Lynton's profit for the current year is $180,000. Lynton pays a dividend of $60,000. What is the carrying amount of the associate in the consolidated statement of financial position at year end?
- $500,000
- $536,000
- $554,000
- $518,000
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Equity method: Opening carrying amount = cost = $500,000. Add group's share of profit = 30% × $180,000 = $54,000. Less group's share of dividend = 30% × $60,000 = $18,000. Closing carrying amount = $500,000 + $54,000 − $18,000 = $536,000. Note: the fact that net assets included $200,000 retained earnings at acquisition is relevant to goodwill calculation but not to this carrying amount movement. Option C adds profit but doesn't deduct dividends. Option D deducts dividends from cost only. Option A is just the original cost.
During the year, Parent Co sells goods worth $3,000,000 to Sub Co (80% subsidiary). All goods have been sold by Sub Co to external customers by year end. What adjustments are required to the consolidated statement of profit or loss?
- Eliminate $3,000,000 from revenue only — cost of sales is not adjusted
- Eliminate $2,400,000 from revenue (80% × $3,000,000 — parent's share only)
- Eliminate $3,000,000 from revenue and $3,000,000 from cost of sales; profit is unaffected
- No adjustment — all goods have been sold externally so no unrealised profit remains
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. When all goods are sold externally by year end, there is no unrealised profit — the profit has been realised through third-party sales. However, the intragroup transaction still needs to be eliminated to avoid double-counting: revenue of $3,000,000 (Parent's sale to Sub) and cost of sales of $3,000,000 (Sub's purchase from Parent) are both eliminated. This reduces both revenue and COS by $3,000,000 — profit is unchanged. Option A only eliminates revenue. Option B uses ownership percentage (wrong). Option D is wrong — even with all goods sold, the gross revenue/COS inflation must be removed.
Stately Co holds 25% of the ordinary shares of Manor Co. There is no contractual arrangement giving Stately more or less influence than its share ownership suggests. Under IAS 28, how should Manor Co be classified?
- Subsidiary — 25% is significant enough to confer control
- Simple investment — held at cost or fair value
- Joint venture — two or more parties share control
- Associate — 25% ownership falls within the rebuttable presumption of significant influence (20–50%)
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. IAS 28 establishes a rebuttable presumption: if an entity holds 20% or more of the voting rights of another entity, it is presumed to have significant influence unless it can be clearly demonstrated otherwise. At 25% with no other arrangements, the presumption applies and Manor Co is an associate. It is accounted for using the equity method in consolidated statements. Subsidiaries require control (typically >50% — A is wrong). Simple investment (B) applies below 20%. Joint ventures (C) involve joint control by contractual agreement.
Thornwood Co pays rent of $24,000 per annum, payable quarterly in advance on 1 January, 1 April, 1 July, and 1 October. The year end is 31 December. How much rent expense appears in profit or loss, and what balance appears on the statement of financial position?
- Expense $24,000; no balance sheet entry
- Expense $18,000; prepayment $6,000
- Expense $24,000; prepayment $6,000
- Expense $24,000; accrual $6,000
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Each quarterly payment of $6,000 is made in advance and covers the three months that follow it. The payments on 1 January, 1 April, 1 July and 1 October cover January–March, April–June, July–September and October–December respectively — exactly the twelve months of the year ended 31 December. The full $24,000 therefore relates to the current year, and the 1 October payment is entirely used up by the year end, so there is no prepayment and no accrual. Expense $24,000; no balance sheet entry. Option C is the tempting trap — assuming the last quarterly payment is prepaid, but it covers October to December, all within the year. Option B compounds that by also understating the expense. Option D wrongly recognises an accrual, but the rent is paid in advance, not arrears.
Nexus Co holds 30% of Apex Co (treated as an associate) for several years. Nexus then acquires a further 45% for $2,800,000, giving it 75% control. How is the previously held 30% interest treated on the date control is obtained?
- The 30% is simply added to the 45% at its original cost — no remeasurement
- The 30% is remeasured to its fair value at the acquisition date; any gain or loss versus its previous carrying amount is recognised in profit or loss
- The 30% is derecognised and replaced with a proportionate share of the subsidiary's net assets
- The 30% continues to be accounted for under the equity method while the 45% is consolidated
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Under IFRS 3 (step acquisitions), when control is obtained in a step acquisition, the previously held interest is remeasured to its fair value at the date control is obtained. Any resulting gain or loss is recognised in profit or loss. This 'deemed disposal' of the old interest at fair value is then included in the total consideration for goodwill calculation. Option A ignores the remeasurement requirement. Option C incorrectly derecognises without proper accounting. Option D would maintain two separate treatments for the same investment after control is obtained.
During 20X4, Walton Co discovers that depreciation of $50,000 was omitted from the 20X2 financial statements. Under IAS 8, how is this correction made in the 20X4 financial statements?
- Restate the comparative 20X3 figures and adjust the opening retained earnings for the earliest period presented
- Include the $50,000 as an additional depreciation charge in the 20X4 income statement
- Disclose in the notes but make no adjustment to the financial statements
- Make the correction through the current year's revaluation surplus
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Prior period errors under IAS 8 are corrected retrospectively: restate the comparative period figures and adjust the opening balance of retained earnings for the earliest period presented. This ensures the financial statements show what they would have shown had the error not occurred. Including in the current year P&L (B) would distort 20X4's results. Disclosure without adjustment (C) is not permitted for material errors. Revaluation surplus (D) is used for asset revaluations, not error corrections.
A subsidiary recognises OCI of $90,000 relating to revaluation of land. Parent owns 60%. How is this OCI presented in the consolidated SPLOCI?
- $90,000 shown in consolidated OCI — no split is required
- $90,000 shown as a single line in consolidated OCI but without any attribution
- $54,000 in consolidated OCI attributable to owners of parent; $36,000 attributable to NCI
- $54,000 shown in consolidated OCI; NCI gets no share of OCI
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. The consolidated SPLOCI must present total comprehensive income attributable to owners of the parent and to NCI separately — just as profit or loss is split. OCI is included in full in the consolidated SPLOCI, then attributed: Parent's share = 60% × $90,000 = $54,000; NCI's share = 40% × $90,000 = $36,000. Option A includes full OCI without attribution split. Option B is similar to A. Option D incorrectly excludes NCI from OCI attribution. The NCI holds an interest in both profit and OCI of the subsidiary.
Kentworth Co enters a 3-year lease for office equipment on 1 April 20X4. Annual payments of $30,000 are due at year end. Implicit rate 5%. Annuity factor 3 years at 5% = 2.723. Year end: 31 March. What figures appear in the year-ended 31 March 20X5 financial statements?
- ROU asset $81,690; Lease liability $51,690; Depreciation $27,230; Interest $4,085
- Expense $30,000 only — short-term lease exemption applies
- ROU asset $81,690; Lease liability $55,775; Depreciation $27,230; Interest $4,085
- ROU asset $90,000; Lease liability $60,000
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Lease liability at inception = $30,000 × 2.723 = $81,690, and the right-of-use asset is recognised at the same $81,690. Year 1 interest = $81,690 × 5% = $4,085. After the $30,000 payment, the closing lease liability = $81,690 + $4,085 − $30,000 = $55,775. The ROU asset is depreciated over the 3-year lease term: $81,690 ÷ 3 = $27,230 per year. So the year-ended 31 March 20X5 statements show depreciation $27,230 and interest $4,085 in profit or loss and a closing lease liability of $55,775 — option C. Option A uses an incorrect closing liability of $51,690. Option B wrongly applies the short-term lease exemption, but a 3-year lease does not qualify. Option D uses undiscounted figures.
At acquisition, goodwill was calculated at $500,000 using the full goodwill (fair value) method. At year end, an impairment review shows the goodwill has been impaired by $80,000. How is this split between the parent and NCI (NCI = 20%)?
- $80,000 to parent only — NCI never shares goodwill impairment
- $64,000 to parent; $16,000 to NCI — split in ownership proportions
- The full $80,000 is charged to OCI
- $80,000 to the subsidiary's retained earnings
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Under the full goodwill method, goodwill includes both the parent's and NCI's share. Goodwill impairment is allocated between owners in proportion to their ownership interests. Parent's share = 80% × $80,000 = $64,000 (reduces parent's portion of consolidated retained earnings). NCI's share = 20% × $80,000 = $16,000 (reduces NCI in the consolidated statement of financial position). Under the proportionate method, only the parent's goodwill is recognised, so impairment would be 100% parent's. Options A, C, and D misapply the allocation rule.
Aldgate Co has a $2,000,000 bank loan due for repayment in 3 years' time. However, the loan contains a covenant requiring Aldgate to maintain a debt/equity ratio below 1.5. At the reporting date, Aldgate has breached this covenant. The bank has not yet waived the breach. How should this loan be classified?
- Non-current liability — the scheduled repayment date is 3 years away
- Disclose in notes only — covenant breaches have no balance sheet impact
- Split 50% current, 50% non-current to reflect the uncertainty
- Current liability — because the breach gives the bank the right to demand immediate repayment, the loan must be reclassified
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Under IAS 1 (now IFRS 18), when a borrower has breached a loan covenant at or before the reporting date and the breach entitles the lender to demand early repayment, the loan is reclassified as current — unless the lender has agreed (before the reporting date) to waive the breach for at least 12 months. The bank has not waived the breach, so the entire $2,000,000 must be reclassified as current. Option A ignores the covenant breach. Option B is inadequate — reclassification is required. Option C has no IFRS basis.
Hartwick Co acquires 70% of Shelby Co. In addition to immediate cash of $3,000,000, Hartwick agrees to pay a further $800,000 in 2 years, contingent on Shelby's profits exceeding a target. At acquisition date, the fair value of the contingent consideration is $550,000. How much total consideration is included in the goodwill calculation?
- $3,000,000 — contingent consideration is excluded until the condition is met
- $3,550,000 — the immediate cash plus fair value of contingent consideration
- $3,800,000 — the maximum possible payment
- $3,000,000 plus a provision equal to 50% probability × $800,000 = $3,400,000
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Under IFRS 3, contingent consideration is recognised at its fair value at the acquisition date, regardless of whether the condition has been met. The fair value represents the best estimate of the obligation at acquisition. Total consideration = $3,000,000 + $550,000 = $3,550,000. Option A excludes contingent consideration — incorrect under IFRS 3. Option C uses the undiscounted maximum ($3,800,000). Option D uses an arbitrary probability weighting rather than the fair value provided.
At year end, Aldbury Co holds equity shares classified as FVTPL, with a carrying amount of $200,000. The year-end fair value is $235,000. Where should these be presented in the statement of financial position, and how is the movement recognised?
- Non-current assets at $200,000 — no remeasurement until disposal
- Non-current assets at $235,000 — the $35,000 gain recognised in OCI
- Current assets at $200,000 — the gain is deferred as a revaluation reserve
- Current or non-current assets (depending on holding intention) at $235,000 — the $35,000 gain recognised in profit or loss
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. FVTPL financial assets are remeasured to fair value at each reporting date — the carrying amount becomes $235,000. The $35,000 fair value gain is recognised in profit or loss (FVTPL by definition means changes go to P&L). Presentation as current or non-current depends on the entity's intention/holding period. Option A does not remeasure. Option B uses the correct value but incorrectly routes the gain to OCI (FVOCI treatment). Option C does not remeasure and defers the gain.
In a consolidated statement of profit or loss, profit for the period of $800,000 must be split between owners of the parent (75%) and NCI (25%). The subsidiary contributed profit of $120,000 for the post-acquisition period. Which of the following correctly shows the attribution?
- Owners of parent $800,000; NCI $0
- Owners of parent $710,000; NCI $90,000
- Owners of parent $770,000; NCI $30,000
- Owners of parent $740,000; NCI $60,000
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. NCI's share = NCI% × subsidiary's post-acquisition profit = 25% × $120,000 = $30,000. Profit attributable to owners of parent = $800,000 − $30,000 = $770,000. Total = $800,000. ✓ Option A gives all profit to parent. Option B uses 75% × $120,000 = $90,000 for NCI (wrong — NCI is 25%). Option D uses 50% of subsidiary profit for NCI. The key is that NCI's share is always NCI% × subsidiary's profit only — not NCI% of total group profit.
Which of the following would appear in the statement of changes in equity as a transaction with owners?
- Profit for the year
- Dividends paid to ordinary shareholders
- Revaluation surplus arising in the year
- Actuarial gains on a defined benefit pension plan
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. The statement of changes in equity distinguishes transactions with owners in their capacity as owners (e.g. dividends, share issues, share buybacks) from changes arising from performance (profit/OCI). Dividends paid are a transaction with owners — they reduce equity by distributing retained profits. Profit (A) and revaluation surplus (C) are performance-related changes in equity. Actuarial gains on pension plans (D) are recognised in OCI — a performance-related change, not an owner transaction. Share issues and buybacks are also owner transactions but are not listed here.
In which section of the statement of cash flows (indirect method) would the proceeds from the sale of a non-current asset appear?
- Investing activities — as a cash inflow from the sale of the non-current asset
- Operating activities — as an adjustment to profit
- Financing activities — as repayment of the investment
- The proceeds are not included in the cash flow statement
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Under IAS 7 (and consistent with IFRS 18's approach to the cash flow statement), proceeds from the sale of non-current assets are classified as investing activities — they represent receipts from disposal of capital assets. In the indirect method operating section, any gain on disposal is removed from profit (being a non-operating item). The full proceeds then appear as a cash inflow under investing activities. This is a common exam error — candidates often leave the gain in operating activities or show the book value under investing (instead of actual proceeds).
Unwinding of discount on deferred consideration payable to the sellers of a subsidiary should be classified in the consolidated statement of profit or loss under which heading?
- Operating expenses — it is part of the cost of the acquisition
- Other comprehensive income — it is related to acquisition financing
- Finance costs — below operating profit
- Separately disclosed as an exceptional item above operating profit
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Per the SD25 examiner: Deferred consideration is a financial liability. Its unwinding of discount is a financing cost, classified below operating profit in the finance costs section. The examiner explicitly stated that candidates who included this above operating profit received no marks — it must be in the financing section. Option A misclassifies it as an operating expense. Option B uses OCI incorrectly. Option D puts it above operating profit — a specific error the examiner flagged.
Under IFRS 18, which of the following is a required element of the statement of profit or loss that was NOT previously required under IAS 1?
- The presentation of total comprehensive income
- The mandatory subtotal for operating profit — defined as profit before investing and financing items and taxes
- The disclosure of basic earnings per share
- The presentation of comparative prior period figures
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. IFRS 18's key innovation over IAS 1 is the mandatory operating profit subtotal. Under IAS 1, entities could define 'operating profit' however they liked — or omit it entirely — leading to inconsistency across entities. IFRS 18 mandates a defined subtotal that clearly separates operating performance from investing and financing activities. Total comprehensive income (A) was already required. EPS (C) is required by IAS 33. Comparatives (D) were required under IAS 1. The operating profit subtotal is the significant new requirement.
A parent sells a machine to its 80%-owned subsidiary for $200,000 when the machine's carrying amount in the parent's books is $140,000. Remaining useful life = 5 years. One year has elapsed since the transfer. What is the net unrealised profit to be eliminated in the consolidated financial statements at year end?
- $60,000
- $12,000
- $72,000
- $48,000
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Unrealised profit on transfer = $200,000 − $140,000 = $60,000. This profit is unrealised from the group's perspective — the asset is still within the group. However, the subsidiary has been depreciating based on the inflated transfer price: extra depreciation = $60,000 / 5 years = $12,000. After 1 year, the net unrealised profit remaining = $60,000 − $12,000 = $48,000. The $12,000 depreciation has been 'realised' through additional depreciation. In consolidated statements: the $60,000 profit is eliminated and an adjustment is made to add back $12,000 of excess depreciation charged → net elimination = $48,000. Option A ignores depreciation realisation. Option B is just the depreciation adjustment. Option C ($72,000) adds the depreciation adjustment instead of deducting it.
Nexford Group acquires a foreign subsidiary that values its inventory using LIFO (permitted under local GAAP but not under IAS 2). Before preparing the group's consolidated financial statements, what must the group do?
- Use LIFO for the subsidiary in the consolidated statements as it is permitted locally
- Restate the subsidiary's inventory from LIFO to either FIFO or weighted average cost before consolidation
- Exclude the subsidiary's inventory from consolidated statements
- Disclose the use of LIFO in the notes to the consolidated accounts and take no further action
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. IFRS 10 requires uniform accounting policies across the group. IAS 2 prohibits LIFO for inventory valuation under IFRS. The subsidiary's LIFO inventory must be restated to either FIFO or weighted average cost (both permitted under IAS 2) before the subsidiary's results are included in the consolidated financial statements. Option A perpetuates a non-IFRS policy in the group accounts. Option C would exclude material balance sheet items. Option D only discloses but does not correct — disclosure alone is insufficient when restatement is required.
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