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FM: Business valuations

18 free practice questions on business valuations, Section F of the ACCA Financial Management (FM) question bank. Topics include Dividend growth model, Reasons for valuing a business, Asset-based valuation (net asset value), Price/earnings (P/E) valuation, Earnings yield valuation, Dividend valuation model. Each question carries its syllabus reference and a worked explanation. Practise them in the quiz with instant feedback, or read every question with its answer further down this page.

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All 18 business valuations questions

The same questions the quiz above draws on, in syllabus order, each with its answer and worked explanation. 10 are multiple choice and 8 are numerical, where you work the answer out before choosing it.

Question 1 · Syllabus ref F1a · Reasons for valuing a business

In which of the following situations is a business valuation least likely to be required?

  1. A proposed merger or acquisition
  2. A company seeking a stock market listing
  3. The sale of an unquoted company
  4. Recording a routine credit sale to a customer
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Business valuations are needed when ownership stakes change hands or must be priced — for example in mergers and acquisitions, when an unquoted company is sold, when a company seeks a market listing, for tax purposes, or when buying out a shareholder. Recording a routine credit sale (option D) is ordinary bookkeeping and needs no business valuation. Options A, B and C are all classic occasions for a valuation.

Question 2 · Syllabus ref F2a · Asset-based valuation (net asset value)

A company has total assets of £5 million and total liabilities of £2 million, and 1 million ordinary shares in issue. What is the net asset value (NAV) per share on a book-value basis?

  1. £3.00
  2. £5.00
  3. £2.00
  4. £7.00
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Net asset value = total assets − total liabilities = £5m − £2m = £3m, which is the book value of the equity. Per share = £3,000,000 ÷ 1,000,000 = £3.00. Option B uses total assets without deducting liabilities, option C uses the liabilities figure, and option D adds assets and liabilities together. The asset-based method gives a 'floor' value but ignores intangibles and future earnings, so it often understates a going concern.

Question 3 · Syllabus ref F2b · Price/earnings (P/E) valuation

An unquoted company has earnings per share of 30p. A similar quoted company has a price/earnings (P/E) ratio of 12. Using the P/E method (before any discount for being unquoted), what is the estimated value per share?

  1. £0.40
  2. £3.60
  3. £12.30
  4. £40.00
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Under the P/E method, value per share = earnings per share × P/E ratio = 30p × 12 = £3.60. The P/E ratio of a comparable quoted company is applied to the target's earnings. In practice the quoted P/E is usually reduced (a 'haircut') before applying it to an unquoted company, to reflect the lower marketability of its shares. Option A divides instead of multiplying, while options C and D misplace the decimal or misapply the ratio.

Question 4 · Syllabus ref F2b · Earnings yield valuation

A company has earnings per share of 30p. The earnings yield of a comparable company is 10%. Using the earnings yield method, what is the estimated value per share?

  1. £0.30
  2. £0.03
  3. £3.00
  4. £30.00
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Under the earnings yield method, value per share = earnings per share ÷ earnings yield = 30p ÷ 0.10 = £3.00. The earnings yield is the reciprocal of the P/E ratio, so this is the P/E method seen from the other direction (a 10% earnings yield equals a P/E of 10). Option A simply restates the EPS, and options B and D misplace the decimal point. The method values the share by capitalising its earnings at the market's required yield.

Question 5 · Syllabus ref F2c · Dividend growth model — share value

A company's next dividend (D1) will be 21p per share. Dividends are expected to grow at 5% per year and shareholders require a return of 12%. Using the dividend growth model, what is the value per share?

  1. £1.75
  2. £1.24
  3. £4.20
  4. £3.00
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. The dividend growth model gives P0 = D1 ÷ (Ke − g) = 21p ÷ (0.12 − 0.05) = 21p ÷ 0.07 = £3.00. The model values the share as a growing perpetuity of dividends discounted at the required return less the growth rate. Option C divides by the growth rate alone, while options A and B use the wrong numerator or denominator. The valuation is sensitive to the growth and required-return assumptions because they appear as a small difference in the denominator.

Question 6 · Syllabus ref F2c · Dividend growth model — limitations

Which of the following is a key limitation of the dividend growth model for valuing shares?

  1. It cannot be used for any listed company, only for unquoted businesses
  2. It ignores the company's dividends entirely
  3. It assumes a constant dividend growth rate in perpetuity and is highly sensitive to the growth and cost-of-equity estimates
  4. It always gives exactly the same answer as the net asset value method
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. The dividend growth model assumes dividends grow at a single constant rate forever, which is unrealistic, and because the growth rate and required return appear as a small difference in the denominator, the valuation is very sensitive to small changes in those estimates. It also struggles with companies that pay no dividends. Option A and option B are untrue (the model is widely used and is built on dividends), and option D is incorrect, since different methods typically give different values.

Question 7 · Syllabus ref F2c · Dividend valuation model — no growth

A company is expected to pay a constant dividend of 40p per share in perpetuity. Investors require a return of 10%. Using the dividend valuation model, what is the value of one share?

  1. £4.00
  2. £0.40
  3. £4.40
  4. £2.50
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. With no growth, share value = dividend ÷ required return = 40p ÷ 0.10 = £4.00. The general dividend valuation model, D ÷ (r − g), reduces to D ÷ r when growth is zero, treating the share as a perpetuity paying a constant dividend. Option B is just the dividend itself, option C adds the dividend to the value, and option D inverts part of the calculation. The required return is the rate that capitalises the dividend stream.

Question 8 · Syllabus ref F3a · Valuation of irredeemable debt

An irredeemable bond pays annual interest of £7 per £100 nominal. Investors require a return of 10%. What is the market value per £100 nominal?

  1. £100
  2. £70
  3. £143
  4. £77
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. An irredeemable (undated) bond is a perpetuity, so its market value = annual interest ÷ required return = £7 ÷ 0.10 = £70 per £100 nominal. Because the required return (10%) exceeds the coupon (7%), the bond trades below par. Option A is the nominal value, option C inverts the calculation (100 ÷ 0.70), and option D applies the interest to an incorrect base. It is the investors' required return, not the coupon, that sets the price.

Question 9 · Syllabus ref F3a · Valuation of redeemable debt

A bond pays annual interest of £6 per £100 nominal and is redeemable at par (£100) in three years. Investors require a return of 8% (year-3 discount factor 0.794; three-year annuity factor 2.577). What is the market value per £100 nominal?

  1. £100.00
  2. £106.00
  3. £94.86
  4. £84.86
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Market value = present value of the interest stream + present value of the redemption amount. Interest: £6 × 2.577 (the three-year annuity factor) = £15.46. Redemption: £100 × 0.794 (the year-3 factor) = £79.40. Total = £15.46 + £79.40 = £94.86. The bond trades below par because the 8% required return exceeds the 6% coupon. Option A is par, option B adds one year's interest to par, and option D omits part of the interest stream.

Question 10 · Syllabus ref F3a · Valuation of a convertible bond

A convertible bond can be redeemed at par (£100) or converted into 20 ordinary shares in three years' time. The share price in three years is expected to be £6.00. What would a rational holder do, and what is the relevant value at that date?

  1. Redeem for £100, because cash is always preferable
  2. Convert, giving a value of £100
  3. Redeem for £120
  4. Convert, giving a conversion value of £120
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. The conversion value = number of shares × expected share price = 20 × £6.00 = £120. A rational holder compares this with the £100 cash redemption value and takes the higher amount, so they convert and realise £120. Option A ignores the financial comparison, option B uses the wrong figure for the conversion value, and option C mislabels the £120 as a redemption amount. The bond's market value today would discount this £120 (plus any interim interest) back to the present.

Question 11 · Syllabus ref F3a · Valuation of preference shares

A preference share has a nominal value of £1 and pays a fixed dividend of 5%. Investors require a return of 8%. What is its market value?

  1. 62.5p
  2. £1.00
  3. 40p
  4. 160p
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. A preference share pays a fixed dividend in perpetuity, so its value = dividend ÷ required return = 5p ÷ 0.08 = 62.5p (the 5% dividend on £1 nominal is 5p). There is no tax adjustment, because preference dividends are not tax-deductible. Option B is the nominal value, while options C and D misapply the figures. As with irredeemable debt, the value is a perpetuity capitalised at the investors' required return.

Question 12 · Syllabus ref F3a · Basis of debt valuation

How is the market value of a company's debt theoretically determined?

  1. It is always equal to the nominal (par) value stated on the certificate
  2. It is the present value of the future interest and redemption cash flows, discounted at the investors' required rate of return
  3. It is the original amount the company borrowed
  4. It is the book value shown in the financial statements
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. The market value of debt is the present value of the cash flows the holder expects to receive — future interest plus any redemption amount — discounted at the return investors currently require on that debt. This is why bond prices move inversely to required returns. Option A holds only by coincidence, when the coupon equals the required return; options C and D describe historical or accounting figures, which usually differ from current market value.

Question 13 · Syllabus ref F4a · Efficient market hypothesis — forms

Under the semi-strong form of the efficient market hypothesis, share prices reflect:

  1. Only the history of past share prices
  2. All information, including private and insider information
  3. All publicly available information, including past prices and published announcements
  4. No information at all, public or private, about the company
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. The semi-strong form holds that prices reflect all publicly available information — past prices plus all published data such as results announcements — so neither technical analysis nor fundamental analysis of public information can consistently beat the market. The weak form (option A) covers only past prices, and the strong form (option B) covers all information, including private and insider data. Option D describes an inefficient market. Most developed stock markets are believed to be at least semi-strong efficient.

Question 14 · Syllabus ref F4a · Efficient markets — implications for managers

If a stock market is semi-strong efficient, what is the implication for a company's financial managers?

  1. They can mislead the market with creative accounting, because investors cannot see through it
  2. The timing of a new share issue can reliably exploit a temporarily cheap share price
  3. Technical analysis of historical share price patterns will consistently earn excess returns for investors
  4. The share price fairly reflects public information, so there is little to gain from window-dressing the accounts or trying to time share issues
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. In a semi-strong efficient market, prices already reflect all public information, so the share price is a fair value: managers cannot fool the market with cosmetic accounting changes, and there is little point trying to time share issues to catch a mispricing. Option A and option C contradict efficiency — the market sees through cosmetic changes and past prices are already impounded — and option B assumes a reliable mispricing that efficiency rules out.

Question 15 · Syllabus ref F4a · Evidence of market efficiency

Which of the following is consistent with stock markets being at least semi-strong efficient?

  1. Share prices react quickly and accurately to new public information such as profit announcements
  2. Share prices ignore newly published information for several weeks
  3. Investors can consistently earn excess returns simply by reading published accounts
  4. Past price patterns reliably predict future price movements
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. In a semi-strong efficient market, new public information is rapidly and accurately built into the share price, so prices adjust almost immediately to announcements. Option B describes a slow, inefficient reaction; options C and D imply that publicly available information or past prices could be used to earn consistent excess returns, which efficiency rules out. Empirical evidence broadly supports the semi-strong form in developed markets.

Question 16 · Syllabus ref F2a · Limitations of asset-based valuation

What is a key limitation of the net asset (asset-based) method of valuing a business?

  1. It is impossible to calculate for any company without audited financial statements
  2. It values the separable net assets but ignores the company's ability to generate future earnings and any internally generated goodwill
  3. It always produces a higher value than earnings-based methods
  4. It can only be used for not-for-profit organisations
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. The net asset method values a business at the worth of its separable net assets, but it ignores the company's earning power and the intangible value — brands, know-how, internally generated goodwill — that often makes a business worth more than its balance sheet suggests. It also depends heavily on whether assets are stated at book, replacement or realisable values. It can certainly be calculated (option A), it usually gives a lower figure than earnings methods (option C), and it is not restricted to NFPs (option D).

Question 17 · Syllabus ref F2b · Interpreting the P/E ratio

A company has a notably higher price/earnings (P/E) ratio than its competitors. What does this most likely indicate?

  1. The market expects the company's earnings to fall sharply
  2. The company is certainly overvalued and should be sold
  3. The company has no growth prospects and is likely to be wound up soon
  4. The market expects relatively high future earnings growth, or sees the company as lower risk
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. A high P/E ratio means investors are paying more for each pound of current earnings, which usually reflects expectations of strong future earnings growth and/or a perception of lower risk. Option A would tend to depress, not raise, the P/E; option B is too absolute, since a high P/E may be fully justified by prospects; and option C is the opposite of what a high P/E normally signals. P/E ratios are most useful when comparing similar companies within the same sector.

Question 18 · Syllabus ref F1a · Valuing unquoted company shares

Why is valuing the shares of an unquoted (private) company more difficult than valuing a listed company?

  1. There is no quoted market price, the shares are less marketable and reliable information may be scarce
  2. Unquoted companies are not legally allowed to be valued
  3. Unquoted shares always have a value of zero
  4. Listed companies never need to be valued because their share price is always correct
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. An unquoted company has no observable market price, so a value must be estimated using methods such as net assets, an adjusted P/E multiple or discounted cash flow. The shares are also less marketable and harder to sell, and information about the company is typically more limited — all of which add uncertainty, often leading to a discount being applied. Options B, C and D are simply untrue.

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