P1: Budgeting
38 free practice questions on budgeting, Section B of the CIMA Management Accounting (P1) question bank. Topics include Planning and operational variances, Mix and yield variances, Cash budget, Materials price variance, Labour efficiency variance, Fixed overhead expenditure variance. Each question carries its syllabus reference and a worked explanation. Practise them in the quiz with instant feedback, or read every question with its answer further down this page.
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All 38 budgeting questions
The same questions the quiz above draws on, in syllabus order, each with its answer and worked explanation. 21 are multiple choice and 17 are numerical, where you work the answer out before choosing it.
The standard price of material is £5.00 per kg. During the period, 4,000 kg was purchased at a total cost of £21,200. What is the materials price variance?
- £1,200 adverse
- £1,200 favourable
- £2,000 adverse
- £800 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Materials price variance = (standard price × actual quantity purchased) − actual cost = (4,000 × £5.00) − £21,200 = £20,000 − £21,200 = £1,200 adverse. The adverse direction is confirmed by the actual price (£21,200 ÷ 4,000 = £5.30/kg) exceeding the standard price (£5.00). The favourable version simply reverses the sign. The price variance is calculated on the quantity purchased (not used), so that purchasing efficiency is measured at the time of purchase. £2,000 and £800 do not follow from the £0.30 per kg price difference on 4,000 kg.
The standard time is 3 hours per unit and the standard labour rate is £12 per hour. Actual production was 500 units, and 1,620 actual hours were worked. What is the labour efficiency variance?
- £1,440 favourable
- £1,440 adverse
- £2,160 favourable
- £720 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Standard hours for actual output = 500 units × 3 hours = 1,500 hours. Labour efficiency variance = (standard hours − actual hours) × standard rate = (1,500 − 1,620) × £12 = −£1,440, i.e. £1,440 adverse, because more hours were worked than the standard allows. The favourable version has the correct figure but the wrong direction. The efficiency variance isolates the effect of working faster or slower than standard, valued at the standard rate, separate from the rate variance. £2,160 favourable and £720 adverse do not follow from the 120-hour difference at £12.
Budgeted fixed overhead is £60,000. Actual fixed overhead incurred is £63,500. What is the fixed overhead expenditure variance?
- £63,500 adverse
- £3,500 favourable
- £3,500 adverse
- £3,000 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. The fixed overhead expenditure variance = budgeted fixed overhead − actual fixed overhead = £60,000 − £63,500 = −£3,500, i.e. £3,500 adverse, because actual spending exceeded budget. The favourable version reverses the direction. This is the only fixed overhead variance that exists in marginal costing; in absorption costing it is accompanied by a volume variance. The expenditure variance measures whether the business spent more or less on fixed overheads than budgeted. £3,000 adverse does not follow from the figures.
The purpose of preparing a flexible budget for control purposes is to:
- Set a budget that managers are not allowed to exceed under any circumstances
- Replace the standard costing system entirely with a simpler, less rigorous alternative approach
- Estimate the exact cash flows of the business precisely for the next 12 months
- Provide a comparison against actual performance at the actual activity level, giving a fairer variance analysis basis
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. A flexible budget adjusts the original (fixed) budget to the actual activity level achieved, so that variances reflect efficiency and spending differences rather than simply the impact of being busier or quieter than planned. Without flexing, an adverse variance may simply mean more was produced than budgeted, not that the process was inefficient. Flexible budgets give a fairer basis for performance assessment by separating volume effects from efficiency and spending effects.
A process has a standard input of 1,000 kg (500 kg material X at £8/kg, 500 kg material Y at £10/kg, standard cost £9,000) which should yield 900 kg of good output — a standard yield ratio of 90%. During the period, 1,020 kg of input was actually used, and actual output was 895 kg. What is the material yield variance for the period?
- £230 Favourable
- £1,150 Adverse
- £23 Adverse
- £230 Adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. The standard cost per unit of output is £9,000 (standard cost of standard input) ÷ 900 (standard output) = £10 per unit. The standard output expected from the actual input of 1,020 kg, at the standard 90% yield ratio, is 1,020 x 90% = 918 kg. The yield variance compares this expected output to the actual output achieved: (895 actual − 918 standard expected) x £10 = (23) x £10 = £230 Adverse. The adverse result shows the process converted the actual input into less good output than the standard yield ratio predicts — a genuine efficiency loss in the conversion process, separate from any effect of using the two materials in a different proportion (which is captured by the mix variance instead). £23 is the shortfall in units without valuing it at £10, and £1,150 does not follow from the figures.
Zero-based budgeting (ZBB) differs from incremental budgeting primarily because:
- ZBB is only suitable for very large organisations with dedicated budgeting departments
- ZBB requires every activity's budget to be justified from scratch each period, not just adjusted from last year's figure
- ZBB always produces lower cost budgets than incremental budgeting, in every single case
- ZBB focuses exclusively on capital expenditure rather than operating costs
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. ZBB requires managers to justify all planned expenditure from a zero base each period, questioning whether each activity is necessary and at what cost — eliminating the implicit assumption that last year's spending is automatically approved. Incremental budgeting takes the prior year as a starting point and adjusts for known changes, which is simpler but can entrench inefficiencies. ZBB is more time-consuming and is not restricted by organisation size, nor does it guarantee lower budgets or confine itself to capital expenditure.
The standard is 2 kg of material per unit at £5 per kg. Actual production was 400 units and actual material used was 850 kg. What is the materials usage variance?
- £250 favourable
- £250 adverse
- £375 adverse
- £2,500 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Standard quantity for actual output = 400 × 2 = 800 kg. Usage variance = (standard quantity − actual quantity used) × standard price = (800 − 850) × £5 = −£250, i.e. £250 adverse. The adverse direction is confirmed by more material being used than standard allows. The favourable version reverses the sign. Unlike the price variance (calculated on quantity purchased), the usage variance is calculated on quantity used and measures efficiency of material usage. £375 does not follow from the 50 kg excess at £5, and £2,500 misplaces the decimal point.
The standard labour rate is £10 per hour. During the period, 2,200 hours were worked at a total cost of £23,100. What is the labour rate variance?
- £2,200 adverse
- £1,100 favourable
- £1,100 adverse
- £900 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Labour rate variance = (standard rate × actual hours) − actual labour cost = (2,200 × £10) − £23,100 = £22,000 − £23,100 = −£1,100, i.e. £1,100 adverse. The actual rate paid (£23,100 ÷ 2,200 = £10.50/hour) exceeded the standard (£10). The favourable option reverses the direction. The rate variance isolates the effect of paying a different rate from standard, separate from the efficiency with which hours were used. £900 adverse does not follow from the figures.
Variable overhead is absorbed at £3 per machine hour. Actual machine hours worked were 5,000 and actual variable overhead incurred was £14,800. What is the variable overhead expenditure variance?
- £14,800 adverse
- £200 adverse
- £1,200 adverse
- £200 favourable
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Variable overhead expenditure variance = (standard rate × actual hours) − actual variable overhead = (5,000 × £3) − £14,800 = £15,000 − £14,800 = £200 favourable, because less was spent than the standard rate implied for the hours worked. The adverse version reverses the direction. This variance is isolated by holding hours constant at actual hours, separating spending efficiency from time efficiency (the latter is captured by the efficiency variance). £1,200 adverse does not follow from the figures.
The standard selling price is £30 per unit. During the period 3,000 units were sold at a total revenue of £87,000. What is the sales price variance?
- £3,000 adverse
- £3,000 favourable
- £1,500 adverse
- £90,000 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Actual price = £87,000 ÷ 3,000 = £29 per unit. Sales price variance = (actual price − standard price) × actual units sold = (£29 − £30) × 3,000 = −£3,000, i.e. £3,000 adverse, because the actual price received was below standard. The favourable option reverses the sign. This variance measures the revenue effect of selling at a different price from standard, isolated from the effect of selling different volumes. £90,000 is the standard revenue (3,000 × £30), not a variance, and £1,500 does not follow from the figures.
Budgeted sales are 5,000 units. Opening finished goods inventory is 600 units and the company plans closing finished goods inventory of 800 units. What is the budgeted production volume?
- 4,800 units
- 5,200 units
- 5,000 units
- 5,400 units
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Production budget = sales + closing inventory − opening inventory = 5,000 + 800 − 600 = 5,200 units. Because the company wants to increase its finished goods inventory, it must produce more than it sells. The 4,800 unit answer reverses the inventory adjustment. Linking the production budget to the sales budget and inventory plan ensures all functional budgets are coordinated through the master budget. 5,400 adds both the opening and the closing inventory.
An 'ideal standard' in standard costing is:
- A standard based on current, expected levels of efficiency including normal wastage and idle time
- A standard based on historical average performance over recent periods
- A standard based on perfect operating conditions with no wastage, no idle time and no inefficiency
- A standard that is set once and never revised
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. An ideal standard assumes perfect efficiency — no waste, no idle time, no machine breakdowns — and represents the best possible outcome. It is rarely achieved in practice, which means virtually all variances are adverse; this can demotivate staff. An attainable (or expected) standard assumes normal efficiency including expected wastage and idle time. A current standard reflects current conditions. Ideal standards are sometimes used as aspirational targets in kaizen or continuous improvement environments.
Continuing the same job: the standard mix of 1,000 total labour hours (500 skilled at £16, 500 unskilled at £8, standard cost £12,000) is expected to produce 1,000 units of output (one standard hour per unit). During the period, 1,020 total hours were actually worked, and actual output was 980 units. What is the labour yield variance for the period?
- £480 Favourable
- £240 Adverse
- £40 Adverse
- £480 Adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. The standard weighted-average labour rate is £12,000 (standard cost) ÷ 1,000 (standard hours) = £12 per hour. The standard hours allowed for the actual output of 980 units, at the standard rate of 1 hour per unit, is 980 hours. The yield variance compares this to the actual total hours worked: (980 standard hours allowed − 1,020 actual hours worked) x £12 = (40) x £12 = £480 Adverse. The adverse result shows that, in total, more labour hours were used than the standard allows for the output actually achieved — a genuine efficiency loss in converting labour input into finished output, distinct from the separate (and in this case favourable) effect of using more of the cheaper labour grade captured by the mix variance. £240 compares actual hours with the original 1,000 budgeted hours instead of the 980 allowed for the actual output ((1,000 − 1,020) × £12).
Variable overhead is absorbed at £4 per standard machine hour. Standard machine hours for actual output are 2,400 hours, but 2,600 actual machine hours were worked. What is the variable overhead efficiency variance?
- £800 favourable
- £800 adverse
- £400 adverse
- £10,400 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Variable overhead efficiency variance = (standard hours for actual output − actual hours) × standard rate = (2,400 − 2,600) × £4 = −£800, i.e. £800 adverse, because more hours were worked than the standard allows, consuming more variable overhead. The favourable version reverses the sign. This variance measures the variable overhead cost of labour being more or less efficient than standard, distinct from the expenditure variance which holds hours constant at actual. £10,400 is the actual hours at the standard rate (2,600 × £4), not a variance.
Budgeted fixed overhead is £60,000 based on budgeted output of 5,000 units (standard absorption rate £12/unit). Actual output was 4,500 units. What is the fixed overhead volume variance?
- £3,000 adverse
- £6,000 favourable
- £6,000 adverse
- £54,000 favourable
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Fixed overhead absorbed = 4,500 units × £12 = £54,000. Budgeted fixed overhead = £60,000. Volume variance = overhead absorbed − budgeted overhead = £54,000 − £60,000 = −£6,000, i.e. £6,000 adverse. The volume variance arises in absorption costing because fixed overhead is absorbed based on output, so producing fewer units than budgeted means less overhead is absorbed, leaving the remainder unrecovered. £3,000 adverse does not follow from the figures.
Planning and operational variances split the total variance into two parts. The planning variance is:
- The variance caused specifically by the management team's own operational decisions during the period
- The difference between actual results and the revised (updated) standard
- The variance reported specifically to external shareholders within the published financial statements
- Difference between the original standard and a revised standard, reflecting uncontrollable external conditions
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. The planning variance measures the extent to which the original standard was unrealistic due to uncontrollable changes in the environment (such as unexpected price increases in commodity markets). It is the difference between the original standard and a revised, ex-post standard. The operational variance then compares the revised standard to actual results, measuring what management actually controlled. This split allows a fairer performance assessment by separating controllable from uncontrollable variances.
Original standard material cost: £5/kg. Revised standard (due to market price increase): £5.50/kg. Actual price paid: £5.70/kg. Actual quantity purchased: 2,000 kg. What is the operational price variance?
- £400 adverse
- £1,400 adverse
- £1,000 adverse
- £400 favourable
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. The operational price variance compares the revised standard with the actual price, for the quantity purchased: (revised standard − actual price) × actual quantity = (£5.50 − £5.70) × 2,000 = −£0.20 × 2,000 = −£400, i.e. £400 adverse. The planning price variance is (original standard − revised standard) × actual quantity = (£5.00 − £5.50) × 2,000 = −£1,000 adverse (uncontrollable). The total price variance = £1,400 adverse = planning £1,000 + operational £400. The operational variance is the controllable part.
A rolling (continuous) budget is one that:
- Is set once at the start of the year and never changed thereafter under any circumstances
- Rolls forward by one period as each period ends, keeping a consistent forward-looking budget horizon
- Covers only the first three months of the financial year and no further
- Is prepared entirely by senior management without input from operational managers
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. A rolling budget extends the planning horizon continuously by adding a new period (typically a month or quarter) as each period passes, so the organisation always has a budget covering, say, 12 months ahead. This keeps the budget current and reduces the 'budget is outdated' problem that arises with a fixed annual budget as the year progresses. It is more time-consuming than an annual budget and can be prepared at any level of management involvement.
A participative (bottom-up) approach to budgeting is one where:
- The board sets all budgets without consulting operational managers
- All budgets are prepared by external consultants
- Operational managers help set their own budgets, which are then reviewed and coordinated centrally
- Budgets are set to be impossible to achieve to motivate managers to try harder
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. In participative budgeting, operational managers contribute their local knowledge to the budgeting process, which can improve accuracy, increase acceptance and motivate managers who feel ownership of their budgets. A downside is that managers may introduce budget slack (deliberately underestimating revenue or overestimating costs). Top-down budgeting (imposed) is quicker but may reduce motivation. External consultants may assist but are not the defining feature of participative budgeting, and deliberately impossible budgets destroy motivation.
Budgeted fixed overhead is £60,000 based on 5,000 budgeted hours. During the period 4,800 actual hours were worked and actual output represented 4,500 standard hours. What is the fixed overhead capacity variance?
- £600 adverse
- £2,400 favourable
- £6,000 adverse
- £2,400 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. OAR per hour = £60,000 ÷ 5,000 = £12. Capacity variance = (actual hours worked − budgeted hours) × OAR = (4,800 − 5,000) × £12 = −£2,400, i.e. £2,400 adverse. The capacity variance measures whether the workforce put in more or fewer hours than budgeted. Here, 200 fewer hours were worked than planned. The efficiency variance would separately measure how productively those hours were used (actual hours 4,800 vs standard hours 4,500 for actual output). £6,000 adverse is the whole fixed overhead volume variance (capacity plus efficiency), and £600 does not follow from the figures.
Using the same data as above: OAR £12/hour, actual hours 4,800, standard hours for actual output 4,500. What is the fixed overhead efficiency variance?
- £3,600 adverse
- £3,600 favourable
- £600 adverse
- £6,000 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Fixed overhead efficiency variance = (standard hours for actual output − actual hours worked) × OAR = (4,500 − 4,800) × £12 = −£3,600, i.e. £3,600 adverse. The adverse sign shows that more hours were worked than should have been required for the actual output, meaning the workforce was less efficient than standard. The volume variance = capacity (−£2,400) + efficiency (−£3,600) = −£6,000 adverse (confirmed: budgeted overhead £60,000 less absorbed overhead 4,500 × £12 = £54,000 = £6,000 adverse volume variance). £600 adverse does not follow from the figures.
When a company sells two or more products, the sales volume variance can be further split into a sales mix variance and a sales quantity variance. The sales mix variance measures:
- Whether total actual sales exceeded or fell short of budgeted total sales
- Whether the actual sales mix differs from budget, valued at standard contribution per unit
- Whether sales prices differed from standard across the product range
- The volume variance in units for the highest-selling product
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. The sales mix variance isolates the profit impact of selling a different proportional mix of products from budgeted, holding total actual volume constant. If the actual mix shifts toward higher-contribution products, the mix variance is favourable. The sales quantity variance then measures the effect of the total actual sales volume being different from budget, in the standard mix. Together they reconcile the total sales volume variance. The price variance is a separate calculation.
Budget: Product X 400 units (contribution £10), Product Y 600 units (contribution £15). Actual: Product X 300 units, Product Y 700 units (total 1,000 units). What is the sales mix variance?
- £1,000 adverse
- £500 favourable
- £1,000 favourable
- £500 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Budgeted mix: X = 40%, Y = 60%. Actual total = 1,000 units. Actual in standard mix: X = 1,000 × 40% = 400; Y = 1,000 × 60% = 600. Mix variance per product = (actual quantity in actual mix − actual quantity in standard mix) × standard contribution per unit. X: (300 − 400) × £10 = −£1,000 adverse. Y: (700 − 600) × £15 = +£1,500 favourable. Net mix variance = −£1,000 + £1,500 = £500 favourable. The mix has shifted toward the higher-contribution Product Y, which is why the net variance is favourable.
Budget slack refers to:
- The time available between the start of the budget process and the period it covers
- The degree to which a budget can be flexed to reflect the actual level of activity achieved
- The difference between budgeted profit and the actual profit achieved
- Managers deliberately building easier targets into budgets by overestimating costs or underestimating revenues
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Budget slack occurs when managers in a participative budgeting process set targets they know are achievable with less effort than optimal — overestimating costs or underestimating revenue — to build a safety margin and make hitting their budget easier. This is a behavioural consequence of participation and bonus schemes linked to budget achievement. It reduces the usefulness of the budget as a planning and control tool. Zero-based budgeting and challenging budget reviews are common safeguards against slack.
A responsibility centre is defined as:
- A part of the organisation for which a manager is held responsible for specific financial performance measures
- Any department within the organisation that happens to have more than 10 staff members
- A centre that is always measured on profit regardless of its actual activities
- The head office of a multinational company
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. A responsibility centre is a unit of the organisation whose manager is accountable for a defined set of financial measures — a cost centre (costs only), revenue centre (revenues only), profit centre (revenues and costs) or investment centre (revenues, costs and assets). The type of centre determines what the manager controls and is measured on. The number of staff and the level of the organisation are not the defining criteria. Responsibility accounting ensures that managers are evaluated only on what they can control.
The production budget requires 24,000 kg of material. Opening material inventory is 2,000 kg and the company plans to hold closing material inventory of 3,500 kg. How many kg should be budgeted for purchase?
- 22,500 kg
- 25,500 kg
- 24,000 kg
- 20,500 kg
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Purchases = material required for production + closing inventory − opening inventory = 24,000 + 3,500 − 2,000 = 25,500 kg. Because the company plans to build up its material inventory, it must purchase more than it uses in production. The 22,500 kg figure reverses the inventory adjustment. The materials purchases budget depends on both the production volume (which drives consumption) and the planned inventory movements. 20,500 kg deducts the closing inventory from the requirement and ignores the opening inventory.
A job uses skilled and unskilled labour in a standard mix of 50:50 by hours. Standard rates are £16/hour (skilled) and £8/hour (unskilled). During the period, 1,020 total hours were actually worked: 480 skilled hours and 540 unskilled hours. What is the total labour mix variance for the period?
- £240 Adverse
- £480 Favourable
- £30 Favourable
- £240 Favourable
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. At the standard 50:50 mix, the actual total of 1,020 hours should have been split 510 skilled and 510 unskilled hours. Skilled labour: (510 − 480 actual) x £16 = 30 x £16 = £480 Favourable (30 fewer hours of the more expensive grade used than the standard mix implies). Unskilled labour: (510 − 540 actual) x £8 = (30) x £8 = £240 Adverse (30 more hours of the cheaper grade used). Net mix variance = £480 Favourable − £240 Adverse = £240 Favourable. The favourable result reflects a shift toward more of the cheaper unskilled hours and fewer of the expensive skilled hours than the standard mix specifies, which reduces cost for the same total hours worked.
In an absorption costing operating statement, the standard profit is reconciled to actual profit by showing all variances. Which of the following would appear as an adverse adjustment?
- An adverse fixed overhead expenditure variance
- A favourable sales volume profit variance
- A favourable materials usage variance
- A favourable labour efficiency variance
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. An adverse variance reduces actual profit below standard, so it appears as a downward (adverse) adjustment in the reconciliation. A favourable variance is added to bring actual profit above standard. An adverse fixed overhead expenditure variance (actual overhead > budget) is subtracted. Favourable materials usage, sales volume profit and labour efficiency variances would all be added (favourable adjustments). The reconciliation flows from standard profit, adjusting for each sales and cost variance to arrive at actual profit.
For the material scenario above, the mix variance was £60 Adverse and the yield variance was £230 Adverse, giving a total material usage variance of £290 Adverse. Which interpretation of this combined result is correct?
- The two variances always move in the same direction, so this result is unremarkable and requires no further investigation
- Since both variances are adverse, the yield variance must have been calculated incorrectly, as they should always offset each other
- The total usage variance is irrelevant once mix and yield have been calculated separately, and should not be reported
- The mix and yield variances sum to the total usage variance as expected; here, both the shift toward the more expensive material and a genuine efficiency loss in the conversion process contributed to the adverse result, and management should investigate the yield shortfall separately from the mix decision, since they may have different causes
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Mix and yield variances always sum to the total usage variance by construction — £60 Adverse mix + £230 Adverse yield = £290 Adverse usage, exactly as it should. But the two variances have different causes and don't always move in the same direction (in the labour example, mix was favourable while yield was adverse), so seeing both point the same way here doesn't itself indicate an error — it simply means both the mix decision and the underlying process efficiency happened to work against the business this period. The value of the subdivision is precisely that it lets management investigate the mix decision (was substituting toward the expensive material justified?) separately from the yield/efficiency issue (why did the process convert less input into output than standard?), rather than treating the combined usage variance as a single, harder-to-diagnose figure.
A production manager's performance report should ideally include:
- All costs allocated to the production department, including head office recharges
- All group-level costs divided proportionally among all departments
- Only the costs that the production manager can directly influence and control
- Costs decided by shareholders at the annual general meeting
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Responsibility accounting holds managers accountable only for costs within their control — including direct material costs, direct labour efficiency, variable overhead consumption and production-specific fixed costs such as departmental maintenance. Head office recharges, corporate tax and group-level costs are outside the production manager's control and should be excluded from their performance report. Including uncontrollable costs demotivates managers and creates unfair performance assessments. Controllable costs provide the right incentives.
Sales are: March £60,000, April £80,000, May £90,000. Customers pay: 40% in the month of sale and 60% in the following month. What are the total cash receipts from customers in May?
- £69,000
- £90,000
- £78,000
- £84,000
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Cash received in May = (May sales × 40%) + (April sales × 60%) = (£90,000 × 40%) + (£80,000 × 60%) = £36,000 + £48,000 = £84,000. The £90,000 figure ignores the credit terms and treats all May sales as received in May. The £78,000 figure might result from mixing up the percentages. Cash budgets must reflect actual timing of cash receipt, not the period in which sales are recognised. £69,000 does not follow from the figures.
A standard costing system is primarily designed to:
- Provide cost benchmarks for measuring actual performance, enabling variance analysis and control
- Eliminate all production costs from the business entirely and permanently
- Guarantee that actual costs will always equal standard costs
- Replace the need for any management accounting function within the organisation
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Standard costing establishes predetermined costs for direct materials, direct labour and overheads, which serve as benchmarks. Actual costs are then compared against these standards, and variances are investigated to identify where costs exceeded or fell short of expectations. It does not eliminate costs or guarantee that actual equals standard — variance analysis only makes sense if deviations are possible. It is a tool that supports, rather than replaces, the management accounting function.
Purchases are: January £50,000, February £60,000, March £70,000. The company pays 50% in the month of purchase and 50% in the following month. What are cash payments to suppliers in March?
- £65,000
- £70,000
- £60,000
- £55,000
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Cash paid in March = (March purchases × 50%) + (February purchases × 50%) = (£70,000 × 50%) + (£60,000 × 50%) = £35,000 + £30,000 = £65,000. The £70,000 figure treats all March purchases as paid in March, ignoring the credit terms. Cash budgets must follow actual payment timing, not the period purchases are recorded. The £60,000 figure would represent February purchases if all were paid in March — also incorrect. £55,000 uses January and February purchases instead of February and March.
An organisation's payroll shows gross wages of £400,000. Employee's national insurance is £30,000 and income tax deducted is £80,000. Employer's national insurance is £45,000. What is the total employment cost to the employer?
- £400,000
- £445,000
- £290,000
- £555,000
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Total employment cost to the employer = gross wages + employer's national insurance = £400,000 + £45,000 = £445,000. Employee deductions (income tax £80,000 and employee's NI £30,000) are not an additional cost to the employer — they are deducted from the gross pay and passed to the tax authority on the employee's behalf. The employer's own national insurance contribution is a genuine additional cost above the gross wage. The net pay to employees is £400,000 − £80,000 − £30,000 = £290,000. £555,000 also adds the employee deductions, which are part of gross pay, not extra cost.
Management uses a control limit of ±5% of standard cost to decide whether to investigate a variance. If the standard cost is £80,000 and the actual cost is £86,000, should the variance be investigated?
- No — the adverse variance of £6,000 falls below the agreed control limit for investigation
- No — only favourable variances are ever investigated under this company's policy
- Yes — the adverse variance of £6,000 represents 7.5% of standard, exceeding the 5% control limit
- Yes — all adverse variances must always be investigated regardless of their size or cause
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Variance as a percentage of standard = £6,000 ÷ £80,000 × 100 = 7.5%. Since 7.5% exceeds the 5% control limit, the variance should be investigated. Management by exception focuses attention on significant deviations; applying a percentage threshold prevents wasting time on trivial variances while ensuring material ones receive attention. Both favourable and adverse variances outside limits should be investigated — favourable variances may indicate errors in the standard, not just better-than-expected performance.
A process combines two or more materials (or grades of labour) in a specified standard proportion. Which statement correctly describes how mix and yield variances relate to the total usage (or efficiency) variance?
- Mix and yield variances have no relationship to the usage variance — they are calculated entirely independently of it
- The total usage (or efficiency) variance can be subdivided into a mix variance, which isolates the effect of using materials or labour grades in a different proportion than standard, and a yield variance, which isolates the effect of the actual total input producing more or less output than the standard yield would predict
- Mix variance measures price differences between suppliers, and yield variance measures labour rate differences between grades
- Yield variance is only relevant when a single material is used, and mix variance is only relevant when no losses occur in the process
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Where a process uses two or more materials (or labour grades) combined in a standard proportion, the total usage or efficiency variance can be broken down into two components: the mix variance, which isolates the cost effect of combining the inputs in a different proportion than the standard mix (e.g. substituting a cheaper material for a more expensive one), and the yield variance, which isolates the cost effect of the actual total input quantity producing a different output than the standard yield ratio predicts. Together, mix and yield sum to the total usage variance — they are not independent of it, they are not about price or rate differences (that's the separate price/rate variance), and neither is restricted to single-material or no-loss situations.
A process uses two materials, X and Y, in a standard mix of 50:50 by weight. Standard prices are £8 per kg (X) and £10 per kg (Y). During the period, 1,020 kg of input was actually used: 480 kg of X and 540 kg of Y. What is the total material mix variance for the period?
- £60 Adverse
- £60 Favourable
- £600 Adverse
- £240 Favourable
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. At the standard 50:50 mix, the actual total input of 1,020 kg should have been split 510 kg X and 510 kg Y. Material X: (510 − 480 actual) x £8 = 30 x £8 = £240 Favourable (30 kg less of the cheaper material used than the standard mix implies). Material Y: (510 − 540 actual) x £10 = (30) x £10 = £300 Adverse (30 kg more of the more expensive material used). Net mix variance = £240 Favourable − £300 Adverse = £60 Adverse. The net adverse result reflects that the actual mix shifted toward more of the expensive material (Y) and less of the cheaper one (X), which costs more overall even though the total input quantity was fixed at 1,020 kg. £600 adverse does not follow from the figures.
Incremental budgeting is best described as:
- Starting from zero and justifying every item of expenditure from scratch
- Taking the current budget as a base and adjusting by a percentage or amount for next period
- Producing a new budget whenever significant changes in conditions occur
- Basing the budget on activity levels performed rather than on traditional departments
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Incremental budgeting takes a previous period's budget or actual as the starting point and adjusts for known or expected changes — such as inflation, volume changes or new commitments. It is the simplest approach but risks perpetuating inefficiencies (the 'baseline is always right' assumption). Zero-based budgeting starts from scratch each period. Rolling or continuous budgets are updated regularly as conditions change. Activity-based budgeting uses cost driver information to set budgets. Incremental budgeting is widely used because of its simplicity despite its well-known limitations.
Other P1 topics
- Costing (45 questions)
- Short-term decision making (45 questions)
- Uncertainty (22 questions)
- All P1 sections, with the timed mock exam
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