BA3: Analysis
15 free practice questions on analysis, Section D of the CIMA Financial Accounting (BA3) question bank. Topics include Current ratio, Gross profit margin, Interpreting the current ratio, Receivables collection period, Gearing ratio, Quick ratio (acid test). Each question carries its syllabus reference and a worked explanation. Practise them in the quiz with instant feedback, or read every question with its answer further down this page.
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All 15 analysis questions
The same questions the quiz above draws on, in syllabus order, each with its answer and worked explanation. 3 are multiple choice and 12 are numerical, where you work the answer out before choosing it.
A company has current assets of £60,000 and current liabilities of £30,000. What is its current ratio?
- 0.5:1
- 3:1
- 2:1
- 1:1
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Current ratio = current assets ÷ current liabilities = £60,000 ÷ £30,000 = 2, usually expressed as 2:1. It measures short-term liquidity — the ability to meet current liabilities from current assets. A ratio of 2:1 means the company has twice as many current assets as current liabilities. The 0.5:1 figure inverts the calculation, dividing liabilities by assets.
A company has a gross profit of £45,000 on sales of £100,000. What is the gross profit margin?
- 55%
- 2.2%
- 222%
- 45%
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Gross profit margin = gross profit ÷ sales × 100 = £45,000 ÷ £100,000 × 100 = 45%. It shows the proportion of each pound of sales remaining after the cost of sales, indicating profitability and pricing strength. The 55% figure would be the cost of sales as a percentage of sales (the complement of the margin). The margin is always expressed relative to sales revenue. 2.2% and 222% both invert the ratio (sales ÷ gross profit), with or without multiplying by 100.
A company's current ratio is much higher than the industry average. This might indicate that the company:
- Holding excessive inventory or cash and using resources inefficiently
- Is about to become insolvent and unable to pay debts
- Has too many current liabilities relative to assets
- Has no current assets of any kind at all
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. A current ratio well above the norm can signal that the company is tying up too much in inventory, receivables or idle cash rather than using those resources productively — liquidity can be excessive as well as insufficient. A very high ratio does not point to imminent insolvency (a very low ratio might), nor to an excess of current liabilities or an absence of current assets. Ratios must be interpreted in context rather than judged on a 'higher is always better' basis.
A company has trade receivables of £20,000 and credit sales for the year of £146,000. What is the receivables collection period, to the nearest day?
- 40 days
- 73 days
- 20 days
- 50 days
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Receivables collection period = (trade receivables ÷ credit sales) × 365 = (£20,000 ÷ £146,000) × 365 = 50 days. This measures the average time customers take to pay. A longer period may signal poor credit control or cash flow problems. The figure is calculated relative to credit sales, and multiplying the ratio by 365 converts it into days. 40 days and 73 days do not follow from the figures, and 20 days ignores the conversion into days.
A company has long-term debt of £200,000 and equity of £300,000. What is its gearing ratio, measured as debt ÷ (debt + equity)?
- 40%
- 66.7%
- 60%
- 150%
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Gearing measured as debt ÷ (debt + equity) = £200,000 ÷ (£200,000 + £300,000) = £200,000 ÷ £500,000 = 40%. This shows the proportion of the company's long-term capital that is financed by debt. The 66.7% figure is the alternative debt-to-equity measure (£200,000 ÷ £300,000), and 150% inverts it. Higher gearing means greater reliance on borrowing and higher financial risk. 60% is the equity proportion (£300,000 ÷ £500,000), not the debt proportion.
A company has current assets of £80,000 (including inventory of £30,000) and current liabilities of £25,000. What is the quick (acid test) ratio?
- 3.2:1
- 0.5:1
- 1.2:1
- 2:1
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. The quick ratio excludes inventory from current assets, as inventory is the least liquid current asset: (£80,000 − £30,000) ÷ £25,000 = £50,000 ÷ £25,000 = 2, or 2:1. The 3.2:1 figure is the ordinary current ratio (£80,000 ÷ £25,000), which includes inventory. The quick ratio gives a stricter test of whether short-term obligations can be met from the most liquid assets.
A company has inventory of £10,000 and a cost of sales of £73,000 for the year. What is the inventory holding period, to the nearest day?
- 73 days
- 50 days
- 37 days
- 146 days
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Inventory holding period = (inventory ÷ cost of sales) × 365 = (£10,000 ÷ £73,000) × 365 = 50 days. This measures how long, on average, inventory is held before being sold. It is calculated against cost of sales (not revenue), because inventory is held at cost. A longer holding period ties up more cash in inventory and may indicate slow-moving stock. 73, 37 and 146 days do not follow from the inventory and cost of sales figures.
Which of the following is a limitation of ratio analysis?
- Ratios can only be calculated for large companies
- Ratios always give a single definitive answer
- Ratios rely on historical data that may not reflect current conditions
- Ratios remove the need for any professional judgement
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Ratio analysis draws on historical financial statements, so the ratios may not reflect current or future conditions, and differing accounting policies between companies can make comparisons misleading. Ratios can be calculated for businesses of any size, they require interpretation and judgement rather than removing it, and they rarely give a single definitive answer. Recognising these limitations is essential to using ratios sensibly.
A company has an operating profit of £120,000 and capital employed of £800,000. What is its return on capital employed (ROCE)?
- 18%
- 6.7%
- 12%
- 15%
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. ROCE = operating profit ÷ capital employed × 100 = £120,000 ÷ £800,000 × 100 = 15%. ROCE measures how efficiently the business uses its long-term capital to generate operating profit and is a key measure of overall profitability. The 6.7% figure inverts the ratio. Capital employed is usually total equity plus long-term debt, representing the funds invested in the business. 18% and 12% do not follow from the profit and capital figures.
A company has a net profit of £30,000 on revenue of £200,000. What is the net profit margin?
- 15%
- 6.7%
- 20%
- 30%
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Net profit margin = net profit ÷ revenue × 100 = £30,000 ÷ £200,000 × 100 = 15%. It shows the proportion of each pound of sales that becomes net profit after all operating costs, indicating overall cost control and profitability. The 6.7% figure inverts the ratio. The margin is always expressed relative to revenue, allowing comparison of profitability across periods and businesses of different sizes. 30% reads the £30,000 profit as a percentage, and 20% does not follow from the figures.
A company has an operating profit of £90,000 and finance costs (interest) of £15,000. What is its interest cover?
- 6 times
- 0.17 times
- 75 times
- 1.2 times
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Interest cover = operating profit ÷ finance costs = £90,000 ÷ £15,000 = 6 times. It measures how many times the profit could pay the interest charge, indicating the safety margin for debt servicing. A higher figure means lower risk of being unable to meet interest payments. The 0.17 figure inverts the ratio. Lenders watch interest cover closely as a sign of financial risk. 75 times is the difference between the two figures, not a ratio, and 1.2 times divides operating profit by profit after interest (£90,000 ÷ £75,000).
A company has revenue of £600,000 and capital employed of £400,000. What is its asset turnover (based on capital employed)?
- 0.67 times
- 1.5 times
- 2.4 times
- 15 times
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Asset turnover = revenue ÷ capital employed = £600,000 ÷ £400,000 = 1.5 times. It measures how efficiently the business uses its capital to generate sales — each £1 of capital employed produced £1.50 of revenue. The 0.67 figure inverts the ratio. Asset turnover and net profit margin together drive return on capital employed, since ROCE = margin × asset turnover. 15 times misplaces the decimal point, and 2.4 times does not follow from the figures.
A company has an operating profit of £40,000 on revenue of £200,000. What is the operating profit margin?
- 20%
- 5%
- 40%
- 80%
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Operating profit margin = operating profit ÷ revenue × 100 = £40,000 ÷ £200,000 × 100 = 20%. It shows the proportion of revenue remaining as operating profit after cost of sales and operating expenses but before finance costs and tax. The 5% figure inverts the ratio. Comparing the operating margin over time or against competitors helps assess how well the business controls its operating costs. 40% reads the £40,000 profit as a percentage, and 80% is the proportion of revenue absorbed by costs.
A company has trade payables of £12,000 and credit purchases for the year of £73,000. What is the payables payment period, to the nearest day?
- 50 days
- 60 days
- 73 days
- 30 days
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Payables payment period = (trade payables ÷ credit purchases) × 365 = (£12,000 ÷ £73,000) × 365 = 60 days. It measures the average time the business takes to pay its suppliers. Taking longer to pay can ease cash flow but may strain supplier relationships or forfeit discounts. The period is calculated against credit purchases, and multiplying by 365 converts the ratio into days. 50, 73 and 30 days do not follow from the figures; with purchases of £73,000, each £200 of payables represents one day.
A business has a current ratio well below 1:1. This may indicate that the business could have difficulty:
- selling its non-current assets
- paying dividends in five years' time
- Raising long-term finance from investors
- Meeting short-term liabilities as they fall due
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. A current ratio below 1:1 means current liabilities exceed current assets, suggesting the business may struggle to meet its short-term obligations as they fall due — a liquidity concern. The ratio is about short-term solvency, not about selling non-current assets, raising long-term finance, or distant future dividends. A persistently low current ratio can be an early warning sign of cash flow difficulties, though it must be judged in context.
Other BA3 topics
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- Recording transactions (75 questions)
- Preparing financial statements (45 questions)
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