MA: Standard costing
22 free practice questions on standard costing, Section E of the ACCA Management Accounting (MA) question bank. Topics include Standard costing, Material price variance, Labour efficiency variance, Fixed overhead volume variance, Material usage variance, Labour rate variance. Each question carries its syllabus reference and a worked explanation. Practise them in the quiz with instant feedback, or read every question with its answer further down this page.
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All 22 standard costing questions
The same questions the quiz above draws on, in syllabus order, each with its answer and worked explanation. 10 are multiple choice and 12 are numerical, where you work the answer out before choosing it.
The standard material cost is £5 per kg. Actual production was 400 units, each requiring 3kg of material. Actual material purchased and used was 1,300kg at a total cost of £7,150. What is the material price variance?
- £650 favourable
- £500 adverse
- £650 adverse
- £500 favourable
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Material price variance = (Standard price − Actual price) × Actual quantity purchased. Standard price = £5/kg. Actual price = £7,150 ÷ 1,300 = £5.50/kg. Price variance = (£5.00 − £5.50) × 1,300 = −£0.50 × 1,300 = −£650. Adverse because actual price exceeded standard. The material usage variance is separate: Standard quantity for actual production = 400 × 3 = 1,200kg. Actual = 1,300kg. Usage variance = (1,200 − 1,300) × £5 = −£500 adverse. This question tests the price variance only — a common error is to combine price and usage into a single figure.
Standard labour time is 2 hours per unit at £12 per hour. Actual production was 500 units. Actual hours worked were 1,100 hours at a cost of £13,200. What is the labour efficiency variance?
- £1,200 favourable
- £1,400 adverse
- £600 adverse
- £1,200 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Labour efficiency variance = (Standard hours for actual production − Actual hours) × Standard rate. Standard hours for 500 units = 500 × 2 = 1,000 hours. Actual hours = 1,100 hours. Efficiency variance = (1,000 − 1,100) × £12 = −100 × £12 = −£1,200 adverse. Workers took longer than standard, hence adverse. The labour rate variance is separate: (£12 − £13,200/1,100) × 1,100 = (£12 − £12) × 1,100 = £0. The actual rate equals standard rate here, so all the cost overrun is explained by the efficiency variance. £1,400 and £600 do not follow from the 100-hour difference at £12.
Budgeted fixed overheads are £60,000. Budgeted production is 12,000 units. Actual production was 11,000 units. What is the fixed overhead volume variance?
- £5,000 adverse
- £5,000 favourable
- £60,000 adverse
- £1,000 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Fixed overhead absorption rate (OAR) = £60,000 ÷ 12,000 = £5 per unit. Fixed overhead absorbed = 11,000 × £5 = £55,000. Budgeted fixed overhead = £60,000. Volume variance = Absorbed − Budgeted = £55,000 − £60,000 = −£5,000 adverse. Production was 1,000 units below budget, so £5,000 of fixed overhead was under-absorbed. The volume variance measures whether actual production differed from budgeted production — it has nothing to do with the actual cost of fixed overheads (that is the expenditure variance).
Standard material usage is 5 kg per unit at £8/kg. Actual production: 600 units. Actual material used: 3,100 kg. What is the material usage variance?
- £800 adverse
- £800 favourable
- £1,600 adverse
- £400 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Standard quantity for actual production: 600 units × 5 kg = 3,000 kg. Actual quantity used: 3,100 kg. Material usage variance = (Standard quantity − Actual quantity) × Standard price = (3,000 − 3,100) × £8 = −100 × £8 = £800 ADVERSE — option A. The company used 100 kg more than the standard allowance, which is a worse-than-expected result, hence adverse. Option B (£800 favourable) reverses the direction — the most common error, arising from subtracting standard from actual rather than actual from standard. Option C (£1,600) uses a 200 kg difference in error. Option D (£400) applies the wrong rate.
Standard labour rate is £14 per hour. Actual production: 300 units (standard 2 hours per unit). Actual hours paid: 650 hours at a total cost of £7,700. What is the labour rate variance?
- £1,400 favourable
- £1,400 adverse
- £700 favourable
- £700 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Labour rate variance = (Standard rate − Actual rate) × Actual hours, or equivalently: Standard cost of actual hours − Actual cost. Standard cost of 650 hrs = 650 × £14 = £9,100. Actual cost = £7,700. Rate variance = £9,100 − £7,700 = £1,400 FAVOURABLE — option A. Paying less per hour than standard is a favourable result. Option B (£1,400 adverse) reverses the direction. Options C and D (£700) both use half the actual hours. Note: option D (£700 adverse) equals the labour efficiency variance — (standard hours 600 − actual hours 650) × £14 = £700 adverse — making it an excellent distractor for students who confuse rate and efficiency variances.
Budgeted sales: 5,000 units at a standard contribution of £18 per unit. Actual sales: 4,600 units. What is the sales volume contribution variance?
- £7,200 adverse
- £7,200 favourable
- £82,800 adverse
- £90,000 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Sales volume variance = (Actual volume − Budgeted volume) × Standard contribution per unit = (4,600 − 5,000) × £18 = −400 × £18 = −£7,200 adverse. Actual sales were below budget — adverse. The examiner's report confirms this should use contribution (not profit) in a marginal costing system. Option B incorrectly labels it favourable. Option C calculates 4,600 × £18. Option D calculates 5,000 × £18.
In a standard costing reconciliation statement, adverse variances are deducted from budgeted profit and favourable variances are added to budgeted profit to arrive at actual profit. Which of the following statements about this reconciliation is correct?
- The reconciliation is only valid if all variances net to zero in the period
- The reconciliation provides management with a structured explanation of why actual profit differed from budget, broken down by cause
- The reconciliation replaces the need for actual profit reporting as variances fully explain performance
- Adverse variances are always caused by management error and indicate poor performance
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Answer: B. The variance reconciliation bridges budgeted profit to actual profit, explaining each driver of the difference. It is a powerful management control tool. Variances do not need to net to zero (A) — actual and budgeted profit rarely match exactly. Variances supplement, not replace, actual profit reporting (C). Adverse variances have many causes — some are outside management control (e.g. an unexpected price increase from a supplier) and do not automatically indicate poor management (D).
Which of the following is a recognised limitation of standard costing as a performance management tool in a modern manufacturing environment?
- Standard costing cannot be applied to numerical calculations and is therefore unsuitable for most businesses
- Standard costing requires the use of absorption costing and cannot be used with marginal costing
- In fast-changing environments, standards become out of date quickly, making variance analysis less meaningful
- Standard costing is only appropriate for service industries and cannot be used in manufacturing
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Answer: C. In dynamic environments — where input prices, product specifications, or processes change frequently — standard costs become stale and variances reflect standard obsolescence rather than operational performance. This is a well-recognised limitation of traditional standard costing. Standards are expressed numerically — they are inherently quantitative (A is wrong). Standard costing can be used with both absorption and marginal costing (B is wrong). Standard costing originated in manufacturing (D is wrong).
The material price variance for a period is £4,500 adverse. Which of the following could explain this variance?
- The production team used more material than the standard quantity allowed for the actual output
- The labour force worked more slowly than standard, resulting in higher material waste
- The selling price of the finished product was lower than standard, reducing revenue
- The actual price paid per kg exceeded the standard price due to an emergency purchase from a premium supplier
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Answer: D. The material price variance compares standard price to actual price for the quantity purchased. An adverse price variance means the actual price exceeded standard — caused by factors such as emergency purchases, supplier price increases, or purchasing from a non-preferred supplier. Option A describes the material usage variance (quantity, not price). Option B would affect labour efficiency and possibly material usage but not the price variance directly. Option C (selling price) is a sales variance, unrelated to material cost.
The labour efficiency variance for a period is £6,000 favourable. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
- Workers completed the actual output in fewer hours than the standard allowed, possibly due to improved working methods or a more skilled workforce
- Workers were paid a lower hourly rate than standard, reducing the total labour cost
- The company produced more units than budgeted, requiring additional labour hours
- Fewer workers were employed than budgeted, reducing total payroll costs
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Labour efficiency variance = (Standard hours for actual output − Actual hours) × Standard rate. Favourable means actual hours < standard hours — work was completed faster than expected. This could reflect improved methods, better equipment, or a more skilled workforce. Option B describes the labour rate variance. Option C describes a volume difference — if more units were produced, standard hours would increase, and the variance depends on whether actual hours also increased proportionally. Option D describes a cost reduction, not an efficiency variance.
Budgeted fixed overheads: £90,000. Actual fixed overheads incurred: £86,000. What is the fixed overhead expenditure variance and its direction?
- £4,000 adverse
- £90,000 favourable
- £86,000 adverse
- £4,000 favourable
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Fixed overhead expenditure (or spending) variance = Budgeted fixed overhead − Actual fixed overhead = £90,000 − £86,000 = £4,000 favourable. Actual overheads were less than budgeted — a favourable outcome (spent less than planned). Adverse would mean actual exceeded budget. This is distinct from the volume variance (which compares absorbed OH to budgeted OH).
Standard selling price: £40/unit. Actual sales: 3,500 units at £38/unit. What is the sales price variance?
- £7,000 favourable
- £133,000 adverse
- £7,000 adverse
- £2,000 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Sales price variance = (Actual price − Standard price) × Actual quantity = (£38 − £40) × 3,500 = −£2 × 3,500 = −£7,000 adverse. The actual selling price was below standard — adverse. This is distinct from the sales volume variance (which compares actual to budgeted volume at standard contribution). Option A incorrectly labels it favourable. Option B is total actual revenue. Option D is a miscalculation.
Workers were paid for 820 hours but were only productive for 760 hours due to a machine breakdown. The standard labour rate is £15/hour. What is the idle time variance?
- £900 favourable
- £12,300 adverse
- £11,400 favourable
- £900 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Idle time variance = Idle hours × Standard rate = (820 − 760) × £15 = 60 × £15 = £900 adverse. Idle time is always adverse — the business paid for labour that produced nothing. This is separate from the labour efficiency variance (which compares productive hours to standard hours for output achieved). Machine breakdown causing idle time is typically outside the production manager's control but within the maintenance department's responsibility. £12,300 values all 820 paid hours and £11,400 all 760 productive hours at the standard rate; neither is a variance.
Standard variable overhead rate: £6 per direct labour hour. Standard hours per unit: 3 hours. Actual production: 400 units. Actual hours worked: 1,300 hours. Actual variable overhead: £8,450. What is the variable overhead efficiency variance?
- £600 favourable
- £850 adverse
- £600 adverse
- £450 favourable
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Standard hours for actual production = 400 × 3 = 1,200 hours. Variable overhead efficiency variance = (Standard hours − Actual hours) × Standard rate = (1,200 − 1,300) × £6 = −100 × £6 = −£600 adverse. Actual hours exceeded standard — inefficiency in labour time also causes more variable overhead to be incurred. The expenditure variance is separate: (Actual hours × SR) − Actual VOH = (1,300 × £6) − £8,450 = £7,800 − £8,450 = −£650 adverse. £850 and £450 do not follow from the figures, and the £650 expenditure variance is a separate figure.
At the start of the year, standard material cost was set at £10/kg. During the year, market prices rose unexpectedly to £12/kg (a revised standard). Actual price paid was £12.50/kg. Which of the following correctly splits the total price variance into planning and operational components?
- Planning variance £2.50/kg adverse; operational variance £0/kg
- Planning variance £0/kg; operational variance £2.50/kg adverse
- Planning variance £0.50/kg favourable; operational variance £2/kg adverse
- Planning variance £2/kg adverse (standard increase); operational variance £0.50/kg adverse (actual vs revised standard)
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Planning variance = Original standard − Revised standard = £10 − £12 = −£2/kg adverse (the standard was too optimistic). Operational variance = Revised standard − Actual price = £12 − £12.50 = −£0.50/kg adverse (purchasing paid more than even the revised standard). Total = £2.50/kg adverse. This split separates uncontrollable external factors (planning) from controllable purchasing performance (operational). Option A assigns everything to planning. Option B assigns everything to operational.
Budgeted profit: £45,000. Sales volume variance: £3,000 favourable. Sales price variance: £1,500 adverse. Material cost variances (net): £2,000 adverse. Labour cost variances (net): £500 favourable. What is the actual profit?
- £45,000
- £47,000
- £46,000
- £44,000
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Reconciliation — start with budget and adjust for each variance: £45,000 + £3,000 (sales volume, F) − £1,500 (sales price, A) − £2,000 (materials, A) + £500 (labour, F) = £45,000. The variances net to exactly zero, so actual profit equals budgeted profit — option A. This is a legitimate result, not a trick. Option B (£47,000) includes only the favourable variances. Option C (£46,000) nets the variances incorrectly as +£1,000. Option D (£44,000) nets the variances as −£1,000, reversing the signs of the favourable items.
Standard: 4 kg at £6/kg per unit. Actual production: 500 units. Actual: 2,200 kg purchased and used at £6.50/kg. What is the total material cost variance?
- £1,100 adverse
- £1,200 adverse
- £3,400 adverse
- £2,300 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Standard material cost for actual production = 500 × 4 × £6 = £12,000. Actual material cost = 2,200 × £6.50 = £14,300. Total material variance = £12,000 − £14,300 = −£2,300 adverse. This comprises: Price variance = (£6.00 − £6.50) × 2,200 = −£1,100 adverse. Usage variance = (2,000 − 2,200) × £6.00 = −£1,200 adverse. Total = −£1,100 − £1,200 = −£2,300 ✓. Option A is the price variance only. Option B is the usage variance only. Option C adds incorrectly.
In standard absorption costing, the fixed overhead total variance equals which of the following?
- Absorbed overhead minus actual overhead
- Budgeted overhead minus actual overhead
- Standard overhead for actual production minus absorbed overhead
- Actual overhead minus budgeted overhead
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Fixed overhead total variance = Absorbed overhead − Actual overhead. This is the difference between what was absorbed into production (standard OAR × actual output) and what was actually spent. If absorbed > actual = favourable (over-absorbed). If absorbed < actual = adverse (under-absorbed). Option B gives the expenditure variance only. Option C gives the volume variance (absorbed vs budgeted). Option D is the inverse of the total variance (reversed signs).
Which of the following factors would most influence a management accountant's decision about whether to investigate a variance?
- Whether the variance is favourable or adverse — only adverse variances warrant investigation
- The size of the variance relative to the budget figure, the cost of investigation versus likely savings, and whether the variance is likely to persist
- The variance should always be investigated regardless of size as all deviations require explanation
- Variances should only be investigated annually during the budget-setting process
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Answer: B. Variance investigation decisions involve cost-benefit analysis: large variances (material) are more worth investigating than small ones; the cost of investigation must be weighed against the likely savings from corrective action; and persistent variances (indicating a systematic problem) warrant more attention than one-off fluctuations. Both favourable and adverse variances may warrant investigation (A is wrong) — a favourable variance might indicate that standards are too loose. Some variances may be trivial and not worth investigating (C). Variances must be investigated promptly (D is wrong).
In a production process using two materials (Material X and Material Y), the standard mix is 60% X and 40% Y. In the period, more X and less Y were used than standard. Which of the following correctly describes the mix variance direction, assuming X is the cheaper material?
- Adverse mix variance — any deviation from standard mix is always adverse
- Favourable yield variance — using cheaper materials produces more output
- Favourable mix variance — using more of the cheaper material reduces overall material cost below standard
- Adverse mix variance — using more X and less Y indicates the cheaper material was substituted
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Answer: C. Material mix variance measures the effect of changing the proportions of materials used. Using more of the cheaper material (X) and less of the expensive material (Y) reduces the weighted average cost of the actual quantity used below the standard weighted average cost — this is favourable. The mix variance is not always adverse (A) — it depends on which material is substituted. Yield variance (B) measures output quantity, not mix. Option D incorrectly labels this as adverse.
A company revises its material price standard mid-year from £8/kg to £10/kg due to a sustained increase in market prices. What is the benefit of separating the resulting variance into planning and operational components?
- It enables the company to claim compensation from suppliers for the price increase
- It eliminates the need to revise the standard mid-year as the variance explains the difference
- It separates the uncontrollable external price change (planning) from the purchasing manager's controllable performance against the revised standard (operational)
- It allows the company to defer the adverse variance to the following year's accounts
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Answer: C. Splitting into planning and operational variances isolates what managers can control. The planning variance (£8→£10) reflects an external market change — management cannot be held responsible for this. The operational variance (actual price vs £10 revised standard) measures how well purchasing performed against the updated benchmark. This produces fairer performance measurement. Options A, B and D misunderstand the purpose of variance analysis.
A company budgets for 22 working days in a month but actually has 20 working days (public holiday). If daily budgeted production is 500 units and OAR is £4/unit, what is the calendar variance?
- £4,000 favourable
- £44,000 adverse
- £2,000 adverse
- £4,000 adverse
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Calendar variance = (Actual days − Budgeted days) × Budgeted daily production × OAR = (20−22) × 500 × £4 = −2 × 500 × £4 = −£4,000 adverse. Fewer working days than planned means less production capacity — adverse volume variance due to calendar. This is a sub-variance of the fixed overhead volume variance, separating the effect of working days from efficiency. Option A incorrectly labels it favourable. Option B uses units rather than the variance. Option C uses incorrect numbers.
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