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F2: Group accounts

38 free practice questions on group accounts, Section C of the CIMA Advanced Financial Reporting (F2) question bank. Topics include IFRS 3, IAS 28, Consolidation, IAS 33, IAS 21, IFRS 11. Each question carries its syllabus reference and a worked explanation. Practise them in the quiz with instant feedback, or read every question with its answer further down this page.

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All 38 group accounts questions

The same questions the quiz above draws on, in syllabus order, each with its answer and worked explanation. 29 are multiple choice and 9 are numerical, where you work the answer out before choosing it.

Question 1 · Syllabus ref C1a · IFRS 3 — goodwill (fair value NCI method)

Parent acquires 80% of Subsidiary for £800,000. At acquisition the NCI is measured at fair value of £200,000 and the fair value of Subsidiary's identifiable net assets is £750,000. What is the goodwill recognised under IFRS 3?

  1. £200,000
  2. £50,000
  3. £250,000
  4. £800,000
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Under IFRS 3 (full goodwill / fair value method): Goodwill = consideration transferred + NCI at fair value − fair value of identifiable net assets = £800,000 + £200,000 − £750,000 = £250,000. This method recognises the NCI's share of goodwill as well as the parent's share. The £200,000 figure is the NCI at acquisition, not goodwill. The £50,000 would arise from subtracting only the parent's 80% of net assets: £800,000 − (£750,000 × 80%) = £200,000 — still wrong. The proportionate method would give a different, lower goodwill figure.

Question 2 · Syllabus ref C1a · IFRS 3 — goodwill (proportionate NCI method)

Using the same acquisition facts (80% acquired for £800,000, net assets £750,000), but using the proportionate (partial goodwill) NCI method, what is the goodwill recognised?

  1. £250,000
  2. £50,000
  3. £150,000
  4. £200,000
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Proportionate NCI method: NCI is measured as the NCI percentage × fair value of net assets = 20% × £750,000 = £150,000. Goodwill = consideration transferred + NCI (proportionate) − fair value of identifiable net assets = £800,000 + £150,000 − £750,000 = £200,000. This method only recognises the parent's share of goodwill (not the full economic goodwill including the NCI's share). The full-goodwill (fair value NCI) method from the previous question gives £250,000 — the difference of £50,000 represents the NCI's unrecognised share of goodwill.

Question 3 · Syllabus ref C1b · IFRS 10 — control definition

Under IFRS 10, when does an investor control an investee and therefore must consolidate it?

  1. When the investor has power over the investee, exposure to variable returns, and the ability to use that power to affect those returns
  2. When the investor owns more than 50% of the investee's ordinary voting shares in all cases
  3. When the investor owns any shares in the investee, however small the percentage
  4. When the investee is in the same country as the investor
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. IFRS 10 defines control through three cumulative elements: (1) power over the investee (the ability to direct relevant activities); (2) exposure or rights to variable returns from involvement with the investee; and (3) the ability to use that power to affect the amount of those returns. Legal ownership of more than 50% is a strong indicator but not the sole test — an entity can control another with a smaller interest (through contractual rights or de facto power) or lack control despite majority ownership (if significant veto rights exist). Owning any shares without the three elements is not sufficient for control, and geography is irrelevant.

Question 4 · Syllabus ref C1c · IAS 28 — equity method carrying amount

An entity acquires 30% of an associate for £250,000. In the period after acquisition, the associate earns profit of £60,000 and pays no dividends. What is the carrying amount of the investment under the equity method?

  1. £250,000
  2. £268,000
  3. £310,000
  4. £232,000
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Equity method: initial cost £250,000 + investor's share of post-acquisition profit (30% × £60,000 = £18,000) − dividends received (nil) = £268,000. The carrying amount is updated each period for the investor's share of the associate's profit or loss. Leaving the value at the original cost of £250,000 ignores the equity method adjustment. Adding the full £60,000 profit (£310,000) fails to apply the 30% ownership proportion. Deducting £18,000 instead of adding it (£232,000) would represent a share of a loss, but the associate was profitable.

Question 5 · Syllabus ref C1d · IFRS 11 — joint arrangements classification

Under IFRS 11, what is the key distinction between a joint operation and a joint venture?

  1. Joint operations and joint ventures are legally identical and are accounted for in exactly the same way
  2. In a joint venture, each party recognises its proportionate share of the venture's individual assets and liabilities
  3. Joint operation parties have rights to assets and obligations for liabilities; joint venture parties have rights only to net assets
  4. Joint operations must involve at least three parties, while joint ventures require exactly two
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. IFRS 11 distinguishes joint arrangements by the rights and obligations of the parties. In a joint operation, parties have direct rights to assets and direct obligations for liabilities — they recognise their own share of each. In a joint venture, parties have rights only to the net assets (the whole arrangement) and use the equity method to account for it, recognising a single investment line. Proportionate consolidation (recognising a share of individual assets and liabilities) is prohibited for joint ventures under IFRS 11 — that treatment applies to joint operations only. The number of parties is not a distinguishing criterion.

Question 6 · Syllabus ref C1e · Intragroup elimination — unrealised profit

A subsidiary sells goods to the parent at a 25% mark-up on cost. The goods cost the subsidiary £240,000. At the year end, one-third of these goods remain in the parent's inventory. What unrealised profit must be eliminated on consolidation?

  1. £60,000
  2. £15,000
  3. £80,000
  4. £20,000
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Selling price = £240,000 × 1.25 = £300,000. Intragroup profit = £300,000 − £240,000 = £60,000. Proportion remaining in inventory = 1/3. Unrealised profit to eliminate = £60,000 × 1/3 = £20,000. The £60,000 figure is the total intragroup profit on the full shipment, but only the profit on goods still held is unrealised at year end — goods already sold to third parties have been realised. £15,000 takes 25% of the £60,000 total profit instead of the one-third still held, and £80,000 is the cost of the goods still held (£240,000 × 1/3), not the profit on them. Consolidation requires removing only the unrealised portion.

Question 7 · Syllabus ref C1a · NCI at reporting date

At acquisition, NCI was measured at fair value of £200,000. Since acquisition, the subsidiary has generated post-acquisition profit of £100,000. NCI holds 20% of the subsidiary. What is the NCI balance on the consolidated balance sheet at the year end?

  1. £220,000
  2. £200,000
  3. £100,000
  4. £180,000
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. NCI at reporting date = NCI at acquisition + NCI's share of post-acquisition profit = £200,000 + (20% × £100,000) = £200,000 + £20,000 = £220,000. The NCI is updated each period for its share of the subsidiary's profit (and loss). Leaving it at £200,000 ignores the profit share. Taking 20% of £100,000 = £20,000 alone gives only the movement, not the total balance. The £180,000 figure would arise from deducting rather than adding the profit share.

Question 8 · Syllabus ref C1f · IAS 21 — translation of foreign subsidiary

When translating a foreign subsidiary's financial statements into the parent's presentation currency, which exchange rate applies to the subsidiary's assets and liabilities?

  1. The historical rate at the date each asset was acquired
  2. The closing rate (spot rate at the reporting date) for all assets and liabilities
  3. The average rate for the period for all items
  4. Each transaction's rate at the date the transaction occurred
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Under IAS 21, when translating a foreign subsidiary's financial statements using the closing rate method: all assets and liabilities are translated at the closing (reporting date) spot rate; income and expense items are translated at the actual rate at each transaction date or a practical approximation (e.g. period average); equity items (share capital, pre-acquisition reserves) are translated at the historical rate at the date they arose. Using a uniform historical rate for all assets would produce stale values. The average rate is used for income statement items, not the balance sheet. The closing rate method gives consistent period-end values for balance sheet positions.

Question 9 · Syllabus ref C1g · IAS 33 — basic EPS calculation

A listed company reports profit attributable to ordinary shareholders of £1,200,000. The weighted average number of ordinary shares in issue during the year is 4,000,000. What is the basic earnings per share?

  1. 25p
  2. 40p
  3. 30p
  4. 12p
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Basic EPS = profit attributable to ordinary shareholders ÷ weighted average number of shares = £1,200,000 ÷ 4,000,000 = £0.30 = 30p. The weighted average (not period-end) share count is used to reflect the shares that were actually in issue during the year. Common errors: using shares outstanding at year end rather than the weighted average; dividing the weighted average by the profit (inverting the formula, giving 3.33); or using total reported profit rather than the portion attributable to ordinary shareholders (if preference dividends are in play). 25p and 40p do not follow from the figures given, and 12p misplaces the decimal point.

Question 10 · Syllabus ref C1g · IAS 33 — diluted EPS

Basic earnings are £1,200,000 and the weighted average shares are 4,000,000. There are 500,000 potentially dilutive shares from convertible bonds. If converted, interest saved (net of tax) would be £37,500. What is the diluted EPS?

  1. 30.0p
  2. 29.2p
  3. 26.1p
  4. 27.5p
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Diluted EPS adjusts both earnings and shares. Adjusted earnings = £1,200,000 + £37,500 (interest saved, net of tax) = £1,237,500. Adjusted shares = 4,000,000 + 500,000 = 4,500,000. Diluted EPS = £1,237,500 ÷ 4,500,000 = £0.275 = 27.5p. Adding the shares without adjusting earnings gives 26.7p (£1,200,000 ÷ 4,500,000), which is not among the options. 26.1p and 29.2p do not follow from the figures. Using a pre-tax interest saving would also overstate the earnings adjustment. Basic EPS (30p) is always higher than diluted EPS since dilution by definition reduces it.

Question 11 · Syllabus ref C1a · IFRS 3 — goodwill impairment

Under IFRS 3 and IAS 36, how is goodwill impairment recognised?

  1. Goodwill impairment is recognised in profit or loss and cannot be reversed in subsequent periods
  2. Goodwill impairment is recognised in other comprehensive income and is recyclable
  3. Goodwill impairment is reversed if the reason for impairment no longer exists
  4. Goodwill is amortised over its expected useful life rather than being tested for impairment
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. IFRS 3 requires goodwill to be tested for impairment annually (or more frequently if indicators arise) under IAS 36 rather than amortised. When goodwill is impaired, the write-down is recognised in profit or loss. Crucially, IAS 36 prohibits the reversal of goodwill impairment in any subsequent period — even if circumstances change. This is a strict rule designed to prevent manipulation of reported profits. Goodwill impairment does not go to OCI; it is a P&L charge. And goodwill is not amortised under IFRS (unlike CIMA's BA3 level or US GAAP for private companies).

Question 12 · Syllabus ref C1b · Consolidation — intragroup dividend elimination

A parent holds 80% of a subsidiary. The subsidiary pays a dividend of £50,000 in the year. Which amount is eliminated on consolidation?

  1. £50,000 — the full dividend paid by the subsidiary
  2. £40,000 — the dividend received by the parent (80% × £50,000)
  3. £10,000 — the NCI's share of the dividend only
  4. No elimination is needed since dividends are a distribution, not a transaction
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. On consolidation, the intragroup element of the subsidiary's dividend is eliminated: the parent received 80% × £50,000 = £40,000, which was recorded as income in the parent's individual accounts. This £40,000 is eliminated against the parent's dividend income — only the NCI's share (£10,000) remains as a debit to NCI in equity. Eliminating the full £50,000 would incorrectly eliminate the NCI portion as well. The NCI's £10,000 share is not an intragroup item — it leaves the group to an external party and should not be eliminated.

Question 13 · Syllabus ref C1c · IAS 28 — equity method loss

An investor holds a 25% interest in an associate and accounts for it using the equity method. The associate makes a loss of £400,000 in the year. What is the maximum loss the investor can recognise if the associate has no other funding obligations?

  1. £400,000 — the investor's full share of the associate's loss
  2. £0 — losses are never recognised under the equity method
  3. £100,000 — the investor's 25% share, provided it does not reduce the carrying amount below zero
  4. £100,000 regardless of the carrying amount of the investment
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Under IAS 28, the investor recognises its share of the associate's losses (25% × £400,000 = £100,000) through the equity method, reducing the investment's carrying amount. However, the investor should not recognise losses beyond the carrying amount of its investment (i.e. the investment cannot be reduced below zero) unless the investor has incurred legal or constructive obligations on behalf of the associate, or has made payments on its behalf. Once the investment is fully written down, further losses are suspended. Losses are definitely recognised under the equity method — the statement 'never recognised' is incorrect.

Question 14 · Syllabus ref C1d · IFRS 11 — joint venture equity method

How does a joint venturer account for its interest in a joint venture under IFRS 11?

  1. Using proportionate consolidation — recognising a share of each asset and liability line by line
  2. At cost, without any ongoing adjustment for the venture's profit or loss
  3. At fair value through profit or loss, remeasured at each reporting date
  4. Using the equity method — recognising a single investment line and updating it for the venturer's share of profit or loss
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. IFRS 11 requires joint ventures to be accounted for using the equity method (the same method as associates under IAS 28). The venturer recognises a single investment line, initially at cost, and subsequently adjusted for its share of the joint venture's profit or loss and other comprehensive income. Proportionate consolidation — recognising a share of each individual asset and liability — is explicitly prohibited for joint ventures under IFRS 11 (it applies instead to joint operations). Cost-only and FVTPL are not permitted treatments for joint ventures in individual or group financial statements under IFRS.

Question 15 · Syllabus ref C1a · IFRS 3 — acquisition date and fair values

At what date must the fair values of the acquiree's identifiable assets and liabilities be measured in a business combination under IFRS 3?

  1. At the acquisition date — when the acquirer obtains control of the acquiree
  2. At the date the purchase agreement was signed (which may differ from the acquisition date)
  3. At the year-end reporting date of the consolidated financial statements
  4. At the date the due diligence process was completed before the acquisition
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. IFRS 3 requires all identifiable assets acquired and liabilities assumed to be measured at their acquisition-date fair values — the date on which the acquirer obtains control of the acquiree. The acquisition date is a specific date determined under IFRS 10 control principles, which may not be the same as the agreement date. Year-end fair values would be inappropriate since they would include post-acquisition movements. The completion of due diligence has no specific significance under IFRS 3 for measurement purposes — what matters is the point at which control passes.

Question 16 · Syllabus ref C1g · IAS 33 — EPS adjustment for bonus issue

A company had 2,000,000 shares in issue at the start of the year and made a 1-for-4 bonus issue on 1 July. The prior year basic EPS was 30p. What is the restated prior year EPS that should be presented for comparison purposes?

  1. 24p
  2. 30p
  3. 37.5p
  4. 25p
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. A bonus issue creates additional shares without economic substance (no consideration received). IAS 33 requires retrospective adjustment of the weighted average shares and all prior year EPS figures presented for comparison. Bonus issue = 2,000,000 × 1/4 = 500,000 new shares; total post-bonus shares = 2,500,000. Restatement factor = 2,000,000 ÷ 2,500,000 = 0.80. Restated prior year EPS = 30p × 0.80 = 24p. The original 30p is unadjusted. The 37.5p figure arises from dividing by the pre-bonus shares (inflating EPS). The 25p figure comes from applying an incorrect restatement factor.

Question 17 · Syllabus ref C1f · IAS 21 — translation reserve in consolidated accounts

A parent acquires a foreign subsidiary for a cost equivalent to £380,000 (at the historical exchange rate). At the year end, the net assets of the subsidiary translate to £400,000 at the closing rate. What translation reserve arises and where is it recognised?

  1. £20,000 gain in profit or loss
  2. £20,000 loss in OCI
  3. £20,000 gain in OCI — the foreign currency translation reserve in equity
  4. No amount is recognised — the cost basis is maintained throughout
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Under IAS 21 (closing rate method for foreign subsidiaries), the net assets are retranslated at the closing rate each period. The difference between the net assets at closing rate (£400,000) and at the historical rate (£380,000) = £20,000 gives rise to a foreign currency translation reserve, recognised in other comprehensive income and accumulated in equity. This avoids P&L volatility from currency movements on the net investment. The gain is £20,000 (closing exceeds historical), not a loss. The cost basis is not simply maintained — retranslation is mandatory under IAS 21 for subsidiaries using the closing rate method.

Question 18 · Syllabus ref C1a · IFRS 3 — contingent consideration

A company acquires a subsidiary and agrees to pay an additional £500,000 in two years if the subsidiary achieves certain profit targets. How should this contingent consideration be treated under IFRS 3 at the acquisition date?

  1. Ignored until the profit targets are achieved or confirmed
  2. Recognised only if the probability of achievement exceeds 50%
  3. Recognised at fair value at the acquisition date, as part of the total consideration transferred
  4. Treated as a post-acquisition expense, charged to profit or loss in the year the payment is made
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. IFRS 3 requires contingent consideration to be recognised at its fair value at the acquisition date, included in the total consideration transferred (and therefore in goodwill). Subsequent changes in fair value of contingent consideration classified as a financial liability are recognised in profit or loss after acquisition. Ignoring it until targets are met understates goodwill. A 50% probability threshold is not the applicable test — fair value at acquisition date is recognised regardless. Expensing in the payment year incorrectly treats it as a post-acquisition cost rather than part of the purchase price.

Question 19 · Syllabus ref C1b · Consolidation — mid-year acquisition

A parent acquires 75% of a subsidiary on 1 October (the company's year-end is 31 December). How many months of the subsidiary's profit should be included in the consolidated income statement for the year?

  1. 12 months — the full year's profit is always consolidated
  2. 9 months — the pre-acquisition period is included in group results
  3. 6 months — the mid-year approximation is applied as standard
  4. 3 months — only the post-acquisition period from 1 October to 31 December
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Under IFRS 10, consolidation begins from the date the parent obtains control. Here, control is obtained on 1 October, so only the 3-month post-acquisition period (October, November, December) is included in the consolidated income statement for the year. Pre-acquisition profits are not part of the group's results — they belong to the previous owner and are reflected instead in the fair value of net assets at acquisition (and hence in goodwill). Including 12 months would overstate group income; 9 months would incorrectly include the pre-acquisition period.

Question 20 · Syllabus ref C1e · Intragroup asset transfers — unrealised profit and depreciation

A subsidiary sold a non-current asset to the parent at a profit of £30,000. The parent then depreciates the asset over 5 years. What consolidation adjustments are needed at the end of year 1?

  1. Eliminate the £30,000 unrealised profit (reducing asset and equity) and add back £6,000 excess depreciation (increasing asset and profit)
  2. Eliminate only the £30,000 unrealised profit with no depreciation adjustment
  3. Eliminate £6,000 depreciation only, since the unrealised profit is never adjusted in group accounts
  4. Make no adjustment since the asset has been transferred at arm's length between group companies
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Two adjustments are needed: first, the £30,000 intragroup profit is unrealised from the group's perspective (the asset has not been sold outside the group) and must be eliminated — reducing the asset's carrying amount and group profit/equity. Second, the parent is now depreciating the inflated value, causing excess depreciation of £30,000 ÷ 5 = £6,000 per year; this excess depreciation must be reversed (adding back to profit and to the asset's carrying amount). At end of year 1, the net effect on the asset is −£30,000 + £6,000 = −£24,000. Omitting either adjustment leaves intragroup profits partially in the consolidated accounts.

Question 21 · Syllabus ref C1c · IAS 28 — associate — significant influence

Under IAS 28, what level of ownership typically gives rise to a presumption of significant influence (but not control) over an investee?

  1. More than 50% of voting rights
  2. 20% to 50% of voting rights, unless evidence clearly indicates significant influence is absent
  3. Less than 10% of voting rights
  4. Any ownership percentage, since significant influence depends entirely on contractual rights
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. IAS 28 creates a rebuttable presumption that holding 20% or more but less than 50% of the voting rights of an investee gives rise to significant influence — a presumption that can be rebutted by evidence to the contrary (e.g. legal proceedings, no board representation). Significant influence means the ability to participate in, but not control, financial and operating policy decisions. More than 50% would typically give control (consolidation), not merely significant influence. Less than 10% would not normally give significant influence. While contractual arrangements can grant significant influence below 20%, the 20–50% range is the standard presumption.

Question 22 · Syllabus ref C1f · IAS 21 — intragroup monetary balances

A parent has a £500,000 receivable from its foreign subsidiary. The subsidiary's functional currency is the US dollar. At the year end, an exchange difference arises on retranslation of this balance. Where is the exchange difference recognised in the consolidated financial statements?

  1. In OCI only — all intragroup balances produce translation differences in OCI on consolidation
  2. Fully eliminated on consolidation, leaving no exchange difference in any statement
  3. In profit or loss — monetary item retranslation goes to P&L unless part of the net investment
  4. In retained earnings as a prior period adjustment recognised under IAS 8
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Intragroup monetary balances denominated in a foreign currency are retranslated at the closing rate. The resulting exchange difference is recognised in profit or loss unless the balance forms part of the net investment in the foreign operation (which requires specific criteria and deliberate designation). A simple trade-type intercompany balance would generate a P&L difference. On consolidation, the intragroup balance itself is eliminated, but the exchange difference recognised by the individual entities in their separate financial statements remains in the consolidated P&L. The OCI treatment is reserved for net investment hedges or designated long-term intragroup balances meeting IAS 21's net investment criteria.

Question 23 · Syllabus ref C1g · IAS 33 — rights issue EPS adjustment

A company makes a 1-for-4 rights issue at a price below market value part way through the year. How does IAS 33 require the weighted average shares to be adjusted for the EPS calculation?

  1. Add all new shares from 1 January as though the issue occurred at the start of the year
  2. Include only the new shares from the issue date with no bonus fraction adjustment
  3. Apply rights issue shares retrospectively with no time-weighting
  4. Apply a bonus fraction to pre-issue shares, then add new shares weighted from the issue date
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. A rights issue at below market price contains a bonus element (shares issued at a discount effectively include a free share component). IAS 33 requires: (1) the bonus fraction to be calculated as market price before issue ÷ TERP, and applied to shares in issue before the rights issue date; then (2) the new shares are added from the issue date, weighted for the remaining portion of the year. Prior year EPS is also restated by the bonus fraction. This treatment separates the bonus element (retrospective, like a bonus issue) from the cash-raised element (time-weighted from issue date). Adding all shares from 1 January or ignoring the bonus fraction would misstate EPS.

Question 24 · Syllabus ref C1a · IFRS 3 — identifiable intangibles at acquisition

Under IFRS 3, an acquirer identifies a customer list in the acquired business that was never previously recognised as an asset. The customer list meets the separability criterion. How should this be treated?

  1. Recognised at fair value as a separate identifiable intangible asset in the consolidated accounts at acquisition
  2. Included within goodwill since it was not recognised in the acquiree's own accounts
  3. Ignored, as only assets already on the acquiree's balance sheet can be recognised on acquisition
  4. Expensed immediately as a transaction cost of the business combination
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. IFRS 3 requires the acquirer to recognise all identifiable assets and liabilities at fair value at the acquisition date — even those not previously recognised in the acquiree's financial statements. A customer list that is separable (can be sold, transferred or licensed independently) meets IAS 38's identifiability criterion and must be recognised at fair value as a separate intangible, reducing the residual goodwill figure. Including it within goodwill would overstate goodwill. Assets need not have been on the acquiree's pre-acquisition balance sheet to be recognised — that is one of the key features of IFRS 3. Transaction costs are expensed separately from asset recognition.

Question 25 · Syllabus ref C1b · Consolidation — step acquisition

An investor owns 30% of a company (accounted for as an associate) and then acquires a further 45%, obtaining 75% control. Under IFRS 3, how is the previously held interest treated?

  1. Kept at its carrying amount under the equity method with no remeasurement
  2. Recognised at the original cost of the initial 30% investment with no adjustment
  3. Written off entirely and replaced by the consideration paid for the 45% increment
  4. Remeasured to fair value at the acquisition date, with any resulting gain or loss recognised in profit or loss
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. IFRS 3 requires that when an investor achieves control through a step acquisition, the previously held equity interest (here the 30% associate) is remeasured to its fair value at the date control is obtained. Any difference between the fair value and the carrying amount of the previously held interest is recognised in profit or loss. This is consistent with the principle that a business combination is accounted for as though the previously held interest was disposed of and reacquired at fair value on the acquisition date. Keeping it at equity method carrying value or original cost would not reflect this remeasurement principle.

Question 26 · Syllabus ref C1e · Elimination of intragroup profits — direction

A wholly-owned subsidiary sold goods to its parent at a mark-up on cost. Some goods remain in the parent's inventory. For which entity's profit is the unrealised profit eliminated in consolidation?

  1. The subsidiary's profit — it made the sale and recorded the intragroup gain
  2. The parent's profit — it holds the goods in inventory
  3. Both entities equally since it is a group transaction
  4. Neither, since wholly-owned subsidiary transactions are automatically eliminated
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. The unrealised profit arises in the subsidiary — that is the entity that sold at a mark-up and recorded the intragroup gain in its income statement. On consolidation, the subsidiary's profit (and the related inventory balance in the parent) is adjusted: the unrealised profit is deducted from the subsidiary's contribution to group profit and the inventory carrying amount is reduced to original cost to the group. The parent recorded the goods at the inter-company purchase price — it did not record a profit on this transaction. For part-owned subsidiaries, the elimination reduces the NCI's share of profit if the sale was made by the subsidiary (not the parent).

Question 27 · Syllabus ref C1c · IAS 28 — time-apportioning associate profit

An investor acquires a 25% stake in an associate on 1 July. The associate's annual profit is £400,000, earned evenly throughout the year. How much profit should the investor include from the associate for the year ended 31 December?

  1. £100,000 — 25% of the full annual profit
  2. £50,000 — 25% of the half-year profit (6 months from 1 July to 31 December)
  3. £200,000 — half of the full annual profit without applying the ownership percentage
  4. £400,000 — the full associate profit is included from acquisition
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. The investor only acquires significant influence from 1 July, so only the post-acquisition profit is included. Half-year profit = £400,000 ÷ 2 = £200,000. Investor's 25% share = £200,000 × 25% = £50,000. Including the full-year profit (£100,000 = 25% × £400,000) wrongly includes the pre-acquisition period. The £200,000 figure applies no ownership percentage. The full £400,000 includes neither the ownership percentage nor time-apportionment. Both adjustments — time-apportionment and ownership percentage — are required.

Question 28 · Syllabus ref C1g · Earnings per share — combined rights and bonus issue

A company undertakes a rights issue on 1 April, followed by a 1-for-5 bonus issue on 1 October, in the same accounting year (year-end 31 December). How should the weighted average number of shares for basic EPS be calculated?

  1. The bonus issue is ignored entirely, since it does not raise new cash
  2. Only the bonus issue adjustment is required; the rights issue has no effect on the EPS calculation
  3. Both the rights issue and bonus issue are ignored, since IAS 33 only requires closing shares in issue to be used
  4. The rights issue is time-apportioned from its issue date using its theoretical ex-rights price adjustment, and the resulting weighted average (including the pre-rights-issue shares, adjusted by the rights factor) is then further adjusted by the bonus fraction for the entire year, since a bonus issue is applied retrospectively to all shares in issue before the bonus date, including the comparative period
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. A rights issue (since it includes a bonus element via the discounted price) requires the shares in issue before the rights issue to be adjusted by a rights factor (cum-rights price ÷ theoretical ex-rights price) before time-weighting. A bonus issue has no cash effect and is applied retrospectively to ALL shares in issue at any point during the year (and to comparative EPS figures), rather than being time-apportioned from its issue date — it simply increases the share count from the start of the earliest period presented. Both adjustments are required together in a combined scenario like this, in that order (rights factor applied first to the relevant weighted shares, then the whole weighted average multiplied by the bonus fraction) — neither adjustment is ignored, and EPS is never based on the closing share count alone.

Question 29 · Syllabus ref C1b · Consolidation — preference shares of subsidiary

A subsidiary has issued irredeemable preference shares (classified as equity) held entirely by external investors (not by the parent). These preference shares are not part of the parent's controlling equity interest. How are they treated in the consolidated financial statements?

  1. As a liability of the parent company, since the parent controls the subsidiary
  2. Eliminated on consolidation since all subsidiary balances are removed
  3. As a contingent liability of the group, disclosed in the notes only
  4. As part of the non-controlling interest in the consolidated balance sheet — they represent an external interest in the subsidiary
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Preference shares of a subsidiary held by external investors represent an outside interest in the subsidiary that is not held by the parent group. In the consolidated financial statements, these are presented as part of non-controlling interest (NCI) within equity, separately from the equity attributable to the parent's shareholders. They are not a liability of the parent — the parent does not personally owe the preference share payments. They are not eliminated — only intragroup balances between parent and subsidiary are eliminated on consolidation. Preference shareholders in a subsidiary are simply a type of external investor, classified as NCI.

Question 30 · Syllabus ref C1a · IFRS 3 — measurement period adjustments

After completing an acquisition, the acquirer obtains additional information about the fair values of assets at the acquisition date. Under IFRS 3, how are these adjustments handled if they occur within the measurement period (up to one year after acquisition)?

  1. Retrospectively — the opening balance sheet is restated with correct acquisition-date fair values, adjusting goodwill
  2. Prospectively — recognised in profit or loss in the current period
  3. Disclosed in notes only with no balance sheet adjustment
  4. As a separate acquisition expense in the current year income statement
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. IFRS 3 allows a measurement period of up to one year after the acquisition date, during which the acquirer may obtain additional information about the acquisition-date fair values of assets acquired and liabilities assumed. Adjustments made within this period are treated retrospectively — the opening consolidated balance sheet is adjusted as if the correct fair values had been known and recognised at acquisition, with a corresponding adjustment to goodwill. After the measurement period ends, any further revisions are recognised in profit or loss prospectively. This retrospective treatment ensures goodwill reflects the final acquisition-date values.

Question 31 · Syllabus ref C1e · Elimination of intragroup balances

Why are intragroup balances (such as a loan between a parent and subsidiary) eliminated in consolidation?

  1. The subsidiary's assets and liabilities are never recognised in consolidated accounts
  2. The group is presented as one entity — internal transactions should not inflate reported assets and liabilities
  3. IAS 27 prohibits group companies from lending to each other
  4. Elimination increases total assets of the group
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. The consolidated financial statements present the group as a single economic entity. A loan between parent and subsidiary is an internal transaction — from the group's perspective, the 'asset' in one entity and the 'liability' in the other cancel out, and should not inflate reported group totals. Eliminating these balances gives a true picture of the group's external assets and obligations. The subsidiary's external assets and liabilities are not removed — only the intragroup amounts cancel. IAS 27 does not prohibit intragroup lending. Elimination reduces, not increases, the reported total assets of the group.

Question 32 · Syllabus ref C1h · Disposal of a subsidiary — loss of control

A parent sells its entire 80% holding in a subsidiary during the year, losing control. Consideration received is £5.2m; the subsidiary's identifiable net assets at disposal were £4m, and goodwill (fair value method) was £0.6m, with no prior impairment. The non-controlling interest at disposal was £0.9m. What is the group's gain or loss on disposal?

  1. Gain of £1.5m
  2. Gain of £0.6m
  3. Loss of £0.3m
  4. Gain of £2.1m
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. On losing control, the group derecognises the subsidiary's identifiable net assets (£4m), goodwill (£0.6m) and the non-controlling interest (£0.9m), and compares the consideration received against the net amount derecognised. Net assets derecognised = net assets (£4m) + goodwill (£0.6m) − NCI (£0.9m) = £3.7m. Gain on disposal = consideration £5.2m − £3.7m = £1.5m. The NCI is subtracted (not added) because it represents a claim against the subsidiary's net assets that the group no longer has to satisfy once control — and the NCI itself — is derecognised; this is the step most commonly got wrong in this calculation. A £0.3m loss adds the NCI instead of deducting it (£5.2m − £5.5m), and a £2.1m gain leaves out the goodwill (£5.2m − £3.1m).

Question 33 · Syllabus ref C1h · Partial disposal without loss of control

A parent sells 10% of its 80% holding in a subsidiary, retaining a 70% controlling stake — control is not lost. How is this partial disposal accounted for in the consolidated financial statements?

  1. As a disposal generating a gain or loss in the consolidated statement of profit or loss, calculated the same way as a full disposal
  2. As a transaction between owners, recognised directly in equity — no gain or loss is recognised in profit or loss, since the group retains control throughout
  3. The subsidiary is deconsolidated immediately, even though control is retained
  4. No accounting entries are required at all until control is eventually lost in a future period
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Where control is retained after a partial disposal, IFRS 10 treats the transaction as one between owners (the group and the non-controlling interest), recognised directly in equity — the difference between the consideration received and the change in the carrying amount of the NCI is recorded within equity, not as a gain or loss in profit or loss. This is a deliberately different treatment from a full disposal (or a partial disposal that does result in loss of control), which does generate a P&L gain or loss. The subsidiary continues to be fully consolidated (not deconsolidated) since control is retained, and the transaction is recognised in the period it occurs, not deferred.

Question 34 · Syllabus ref C1b · Consolidation — foreign subsidiary goodwill

Goodwill arising on the acquisition of a foreign subsidiary is denominated in the subsidiary's functional currency. Under IAS 21, how is this goodwill translated at subsequent reporting dates?

  1. At the historical rate used at the acquisition date, with no subsequent retranslation
  2. At the average rate for the period, consistent with income statement translation
  3. Goodwill of foreign subsidiaries is always written off at acquisition and not carried forward
  4. At the closing rate at each reporting date, with exchange differences recognised in OCI (foreign currency translation reserve)
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Under IAS 21, goodwill arising on the acquisition of a foreign subsidiary is treated as an asset of the foreign subsidiary (denominated in its functional currency) and translated at the closing rate at each subsequent reporting date. The resulting exchange differences are recognised in OCI and accumulated in the foreign currency translation reserve in equity — consistent with the treatment of all other net assets of the subsidiary. Using the historical rate would freeze goodwill at the acquisition-date value, which is not the IAS 21 requirement. Goodwill is not written off on acquisition under IFRS 3 — it is tested for impairment annually.

Question 35 · Syllabus ref C1c · IAS 28 — impairment of associate investment

Under IAS 28, when is the carrying amount of an investment in an associate tested for impairment?

  1. When there is objective evidence of impairment — tested as a single asset under IAS 36
  2. Annually at the reporting date, regardless of whether any indicators of impairment exist
  3. Impairment of associate investments is prohibited under IFRS — only goodwill can be impaired
  4. Only when the associate has reported a net loss for three consecutive years
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. IAS 28 requires the investor to apply IAS 36 (Impairment of Assets) to test the carrying amount of an investment in an associate whenever objective evidence of impairment exists. Unlike goodwill (tested annually regardless), the associate investment is tested for impairment only when indicators of impairment are present — consistent with IAS 36's general approach. The investment is tested as a whole (not split into components such as goodwill separately). Impairment of associate investments is permitted and required when applicable — it is not prohibited. Consecutive losses may be an indicator but are not the sole trigger.

Question 36 · Syllabus ref C1a · Business combination — what constitutes a business

Under IFRS 3, what is required for an acquisition to qualify as a 'business combination' rather than an asset acquisition?

  1. Any purchase of assets from another entity automatically qualifies as a business combination
  2. The acquired set must constitute a business — at minimum an input and a substantive process that can produce outputs
  3. A business combination requires the acquisition of at least 50% of the entity's shares
  4. Only listed companies can be involved in a business combination under IFRS 3
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. IFRS 3 defines a business as an integrated set of activities and assets capable of being conducted and managed to provide a return. The definition requires at minimum: inputs (such as PP&E, intangibles, or workforce) and a substantive process (such as a skilled workforce or a management team with the ability to create outputs). Simply acquiring individual assets does not constitute a business combination — asset acquisitions are accounted for differently (allocating cost to assets, no goodwill). A 50% ownership threshold is not required — control under IFRS 10 can be achieved below 50%. Business combinations can involve private and public companies alike.

Question 37 · Syllabus ref C1b · IAS 27 — investments in subsidiaries in separate financial statements

In its separate (parent-only) financial statements, how may a parent account for its investments in subsidiaries under IAS 27?

  1. Only by full line-by-line consolidation, exactly as in the group financial statements
  2. Only at fair value through profit or loss, with no other option available
  3. At cost, in accordance with IFRS 9, or using the equity method — applied consistently to each category of investment
  4. Investments in subsidiaries must be omitted entirely from separate financial statements
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. IAS 27 permits a parent, in its separate financial statements, to account for investments in subsidiaries (and associates and joint ventures) either at cost, in accordance with IFRS 9 (fair value), or using the equity method — the choice being applied consistently for each category of investment. Line-by-line consolidation is the treatment in the consolidated financial statements, not the separate ones — that is precisely the distinction separate financial statements exist to draw. Fair value is one permitted option, not the only one. The investments clearly appear in the separate financial statements; the whole purpose of IAS 27 is to specify how.

Question 38 · Syllabus ref C1a · IFRS 3 — bargain purchase (negative goodwill)

At acquisition, the fair value of a subsidiary's identifiable net assets, plus the fair value of any non-controlling interest, exceeds the consideration transferred by the parent. What does this situation represent, and how is it treated under IFRS 3?

  1. Negative goodwill is capitalised as an intangible asset and amortised over its useful life
  2. This situation can never occur under IFRS 3, since consideration always exceeds net assets acquired
  3. A bargain purchase — after reassessing that all figures have been correctly identified and measured, the resulting gain is recognised immediately in the acquirer's profit or loss
  4. The shortfall is simply ignored, with no accounting entry required
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. This situation is a bargain purchase (colloquially 'negative goodwill'). IFRS 3 first requires the acquirer to reassess whether all assets acquired and liabilities assumed have been correctly identified and measured, and whether the consideration and any NCI have been correctly measured — since a bargain purchase is relatively unusual and often indicates a measurement error rather than a genuine bargain. If, after reassessment, a gain is confirmed, it is recognised immediately in the acquirer's profit or loss on the acquisition date — unlike positive goodwill, which is capitalised (and tested for impairment, never amortised). This scenario is not impossible and is not simply ignored.

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